Pharmacology MCQs – General Pharmacology

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INTRODUCTION 1. Name of a drug accepted by a scientific body USAN (United States adopted names) council is (a) Generic name (b) Chemical name (c) Proprietary name (d) Brand name 2. Which of the following is not an essential drug (a) Octreotide (b) Atropine (c) Paracetamol (d) Calamine lotion 3. Which of the following is an orphan drug (a) Liothyronine (b) Carbimazole (c) Nitroglycerine (d) Anti HIV drugs 4. The following are obtained from animal sources except (a) Penicillin (b) Insulin (c) Heparin (d) Antisera 5. Which of the following is produced by DNA recombinant technology (a) Penicillin (b) Human insulin (c) Sulphonamides (d) Morphine 6. Which of the following statements regarding glycosides is true (a) They are basic substances containing nitrogen (b) They are combination of sugar and organic structure (c) They possess astringent property (d) They are combination of oil and resins 7. Which of the following oils are used as counter irritants (a) Eucalyptus oil (b) Turpentine oil (c) Clove oil (d) Castor oil 8. Which of the following is discovery of penicillin (a) Alexander flaming (b) Bating and best (c) Charaka (d) Robert coach 9. Which of the following is discovery of insulin (a) Robert coach (b) Bating and best (c) Selman walks man (d) Alexander flaming 10. Sublingual route of administration has the following advantages except (a) Quick onset of action (b) Avoid first pass effect (c) Dose can be regulated (d) Highly recommended for prolonged action 11. Disadvantages of an oral route of administration are all except (a) Not suitable for use in emergency (b) Does not require assistance (c) Cannot be used in unconscious patient (d) May cause nausea and vomiting 12. Disadvantages of rectal route are all except (a) Inconvenient (b) Can cause rectal inflammation (c) Absorption is slow and irregular (d) Can be used when oral tolerance is poor 13. Which of the following drugs given rectally has a local action (a) Diazepam (b) 5-aminosalicylic acid (c) Aminophylline (d) Ergotamine 14. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to drug administration (a) Rectally administered drugs are completely absorbed (b) Drugs given sublingually are not extracted by portal circulation (c) Drugs cannot be absorbed from intact skin (d) Irritant drugs are better administered subcutaneously 15. The following agents are available as transdermal patch except (a) Insulin (b) Estradiol (c) Fentanyl (d) Nicotine 16. Following are advantages of transdermal administration except (a) Action is fast and can be used in emergency (b) Avoids first pass metabolism (c) Prolonged action (d) Provides smooth non-fluctuating plasma concentration 17. Which of the following statements is not correct (a) Hyoscine given in the form of skin patch for treatment of motion sickness acts for longer period than when given orally (b) Drugs administered sublingually may undergo first pass effect (c) A drug produces more rapid effect when given TM than SC (d) Inhalation can be used to produce local or systemic effects 18. Which route of drug administration allows titration of the dose of the dill 2 with response (a) Sublingual (b) Transdermal (c) Inhalational (d) Intramuscular 19. Route of administration of a drug i decided by following factors except (a) Structure of the drug (b) First pass metabolism (c) Elimination characteristics (d) Site of desired action 20. Which of the following dosage form produces quick systemic absorption of drug (a) Enteric-coated tablets (b) Sustained release tablets (c) Spansules (d) Sublingual tablets 21. Enteric-coating of tablets is associate4 with (a) Rapid absorption of drug (b) Slow excretion of the drug (c) Frequent administration of the drug (d) Prevention of gastric irritation by the drug 22. Enteric-coated tablets (a) Have particles of drug covered with coating (b) Increase gastric irritation (c) Disintegrate in intestine (d) Enhance absorption of drug 23. Controlled release formulations for oral route of administration are the following except (a) Spansules (b) GM (gastrointestinal therapeutic (system) (c) OROS (oral released osmotic system’ (d) Soft gelatin capsules 24. Controlled release formulations are more suitable for drugs with approximately 1/2 of (a) 4 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 24 hours (d) 48 hours 25. First pass effect for a drug is of importance in deciding plasma concentration once when the drug is administered (a) Intramuscularly (b) Intravenously (c) Orally (d) Sublingually 26. Sublingual route of administration has the following advantages except (a) Quick onset of action (b) Avoids first pass effect (c) Can be spit out once the desired action is obtained (d) Most of the drugs can be used by this method ions drug delivery system is used 27. Liposome drug delivery system is used for all except (a) Vincristine (b) Amphotericin (c) Hyoscine (d) Amikacin 28. Essential drug is (a) Drugs that has been developed specifically to treat a rare medical condition (b) Those drugs that satisfy the health care needs of the majority of the population (c) Those drugs that satisfy the health care needs of at least 50% of the population (d) Drug that is to be used with in first hour of the acute attack of the disease 29. Counterfeit drug is (a) Fake medicine (b) Contains the wrong ingredient (c) They have active ingredient in wrong dose (d) All the above 30. Drugs that should be given with prescription of registered medical practitioner only are included in which schedule (a) Schedule C (b) Schedule E (c) Schedule H (d) Schedule I 31. All are local routes of drug administration except (a) Topical (b) Intra-articular (c) Oral (d) Intra-arterial 32. Most variable absorption is seen with which route (a) Oral (b) Intramuscular (c) Intravenous (d) Rectal 33. True about Routes of drug administration (a) 80% bio-availability by I.V. injection (b) I.M. administration needs sterile technique (c) I.(d) injection produces local tissue necrosis and irritation (d) Inhalation produces delayed systemic bio-availability 34. Maximum first pass metabolism is seen by which route (a) Intravenous (b) Intra-arterial (c) Rectal (d) Oral 35. First pass metabolism is bypassed by all of the following routes of administration, except (a) Sublingual (b) Oral (c) Intravenous (d) Transdermal 36. From which of the following routes, bioavailability of the drug is likely to be 100 percent (a) Subcutaneous (b) Intravenous (c) Intramuscular (d) Intradermal 37. About rectal route true is (a) Used for irritant and unpleasant drugs (b) Cannot be used in unconscious patient (c) There is predictable absorption of drug (d) Diazepam cannot be given via rectal route of administration 38. All are true for sublingual route except (a) lt scape first pass metabolism (b) All drugs can be given (c) Action can be terminated any time (d) Rapid absorption 39. Drug not given sublingually is (a) Isosorbide dinitrate (b) Buprenorphine (c) Ergotamine tartrate (d) Isosorbide-5-mononitrate 40. True about transdermal drug delivery system are all except (a) Applied to chest, abdomen and back (b) Drug is delivered at a constant rate (c) Good option in emergency situations (d) Fentanyl is used 41. True about orphan drug is (a) Developed for orphans (b) Drugs used very rarely (c) Drugs used for rare diseases (d) Rare drug for common diseases 42. All of the following are advantages of transdermal drug delivery systems EXCEPT (a) They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug (b) They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma concentration of the drug (c) They minimize inter individual variations in the achieved plasma drug concentration (d) They avoid hepatic first pass metabolism of the drug 43. Which of the following is true of ‘placebo’ (a) Placebo is a dummy medication (b) Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for making tablets (c) Placebos do not produce any effect (d) All patients respond to placebo PHARMACOKINETICS 44. Process contributing least to transport of drugs across biological membranes is (a) Passive diffusion (b) Active transport (c) Pinocytosis (d) Facilitated diffusion 45. Which of the following factors does not affect the drug absorption from the gut (a) Particle size (b) Gastric emptying time (c) Presence of food in stomach (d) Plasma protein binding 46. Bioavailability is usually the least by the following route of administration (a) Intramuscularly (b) Intravenously (c) Orally (d) Rectal 47. Which of the following factor does not alter bioavailability of a drug (a) State of ionization (b) Degree of plasma protein binding (c) Route of administration (d) Vascularity at site of administration 48. Which factor does not alter bioavailability of a drug (a) State of ionization of drug (b) Intravenous route of administration (c) Intramuscular route of administration (d) Molecular size of a drug 49. Volume of distribution of a drug will be better with all of the following except (a) High lipid solubility (b) High degree of ionization (c) Less plasma protein binding (d) Rich vascularity of the site 50. Drugs which are capable of penetrating the blood brain barrier are usually (a) Highly water soluble (b) Quaternary ammonium compounds (c) Highly lipid soluble (d) Highly ionized at physiological pH 51. Binding of drugs with plasma albumin is (a) Reversible and not drug specific (b) Reversible and drug specific (c) Irreversible and drug specific (d) Irreversible and not drug specific 52. Following statement is true regarding plasma protein binding of a drug (a) Binding occurs only to albumin in plasma (b) Binding shortens duration of action of a drug (c) Can influence the protein binding of other drugs (d) Protein bound fraction is active component of the drug 53. Which of the following statements regarding plasma protein binding of drugs is correct (a) It increases bioavailability of the drug (b) Drugs may compete for plasma protein binding sites (c) All drugs bind only to albumin plasma urine (d) Bound form is available for action 54. Following drug can displace bilirubin, from its albumin binding site and kernicterus except (a) Vitamin K (b) Phenobarbitone (c) Indomethacin (d) Sulfadoxine 55. Which of the following drugs is like to displace warfarin from plasma protein binding sites (a) Benzyl penicillin (b) Cimetidine (c) Phenytoin (d) Thiopentone 56. Biotransformation of a drug refers to (a) Chemical alteration inside the both (b) Binding of drugs to plasma albumin (c) Passage of drugs across the cell membrane (d) Disposition of drug from the body 57. The following agents are the example of active drug getting metabolized into active metabolite except (a) Diazepam (b) Allopurinol (c) Spironolactone (d) Morphine 58. All of the following are prodrugs except (a) Levodopa (b) Enalapril (c) Prednisone (d) Digitoxin 59. One drug can increase the rate of hepatic metabolism of other drug due to (a) Enzyme induction (b) Enzyme saturation (c) Enzyme inhibition (d) Enzyme substitution 60. Presystemic metabolism of a drug is known as (a) Phase I drug metabolism (b) First pass metabolism (c) Enterohepatic circulation (d) Enzyme inhibition 61. Which of the following are phase II metabolic reactions (a) Oxidation (b) Reduction (c) Acetylation (d) Hydrolysis 62. All of the following are phase II conjugation reactions except (a) Acetylation (b) Sulfonation (c) Glycine conjugation (d) Cyclization 63. Haemolytic anaemia following primaquine administration in some patients may be related to a genetically deter-mined deficiency of the enzyme (a) Glucuronyl transferase (b) Acetyl transferase (c) Cholinesterase (d) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase 64. The metabolism of following drug shows genetic polymorphism (a) Isoniazid (b) Paracetamol (c) Adrenaline (d) Salicylates 65. The following statements is true about drug metabolizing enzymes (a) Microsomal enzymes are not inducible (b) These enzymes are not under genetic control (c) They are not altered by environment factors (d) They are deficient in newborn 66. All of the following agent cause microsomal enzyme induction except (a) Phenobarbitone (b) Rifampin (c) Cisapride (d) Griseofulvin 67. Which one of the following is inhibitor of drug metabolism (a) Cimetidine (b) Rifampicin (c) DDT (d) Griseofulvin 68. Attribute of drug with high first pass metabolism is (a) There is no difference in first pass effect among individuals (b) Oral bioavailability is decreased in patients with severe liver disease (c) Parenteral dose will be higher than oral dose in this case (d) Oral bioavailability is increased if another drug with similar effect is administered concurrently 69. In infants chloramphenicol toxicity is associated with following metabolic impairment (a) Glucuronide conjugation (b) Acetylation (c) Glycine conjugation (d) Hydroxylation 70. All the following agents undergo enterohepatic cycling except (a) Ampicillin (b) Rifampicin (c) Oral contraceptives (d) Paracetamol 71. Plasma t 1/2 is indicative of (a) Duration of action of a drug (b) Potency of action of a drug (c) Time required for achieving maximum plasma con(c) of a drug (d) Time required for 50% of the drug to be absorbed 72. Which is not true for drugs with long plasma half-life (>12 hrs) (a) Are cumulative in nature (b) Are highly protein bound (c) Have low volume of distribution (d) Take long time to reach steady state level 73. At ___ t1/2, 75% drug elimination takes place. (a) 1 t1/2 (b) 2 t1/2 (c) 3 t 1/2 (d) 4 t1/2 74. Usually steady state levels are reached in following half-life, when drug is administered at constant dosing interval (a) 1-2 t 1/2 (b) 2-3 t1/2 (c) 4-5 t 1/2 (d) 8-10 t 75. Elimination after 4 half-lives in first order kinetic is (a) 84% (b) 93% (c) 80.5% (d) 75% 76. Amount of drug left after four plasma half-lives is (a) 6.25% (b) 12.5% (c) 25% (d) 50% 77. The following features about renal tubular secretion is incorrect (a) Different transport systems exist for acidic and basic drugs (b) Drugs utilizing the same transport compete with each other (c) It is a passive transport mechanism (d) Transport processes are bidirectional, i.e. between blood and renal tubules 78. When a constant fraction of a drug in plasma is eliminated in unit time it is called (a) Zero order kinetics (b) First order kinetics (c) Saturation kinetics (d) Rate of clearance 79. When a constant amount of drug is eliminated irrespective of plasma drug concentration it is called (a) Zero order kinetics (b) First order kinetics (c) Rate of clearance (d) Elimination rate constant 80. At toxic doses, zero order kinetics is seen in (a) Penicillin (b) Carbamazepine (c) Phenytoin (d) Valproate 81. Drugs which show saturation kinetics include all except (a) Phenytoin (b) Theophylline (c) Warfarin (d) Carbamazepine 82. The following drug when excreted in saliva contributes to metallic taste (a) Propranolol (b) Metronidazole (c) Salicylates (d) Ampicillin 83. Duration of action of a drug can be prolonged by (a) Increasing rate of metabolism (b) Increasing rate of drug absorption (c) Reducing protein binding (d) Slowing renal excretion 84. Loading dose of a drug is given (a) To achieve steady state concentration in short-time (b) For drugs with short t1/2 (c) To reduce complications (d) All of these 85. Loading dose of a drug primarily depends on (a) Volume of distribution (b) Clearance (c) Rate of administration (d) Half-life 86. The pharmacokinetics of drugs in neonates differ from that in adults because of their (a) Slow transdermal absorption (b) High glomerular filtration (c) Immature renal tubular transport (d) Overactive hepatic drug metabolizing system 87. Pharmacokinetics includes study of all except (a) Absorption (b) Distribution (c) Adverse effects (d) Excretion 88. Metabolism of a drug primarily results in (a) Activation of the active drug (b) Conversion of prodrug to active metabolite (c) Conversion of lipid soluble drugs to water soluble metabolites (d) Conversion of water-soluble drug to lipid soluble metabolites 89. Which of the following statements about a drug having high plasma protein binding is true (a) Volume of distribution of the drug is very high (b) This drug will be filtered quickly by glomerulus (c) This drug is likely to have minimum chances of drug interactions (d) High plasma protein binding decreases the volume of distribution 90. True statement about first order kinetics is (a) A constant amount of a drug is eliminated in unit time (b) The half-life increases with an increase in dose (c) The rate of elimination is constant (d) The rate of elimination is proportional to the plasma concentration 91. Loading dose of a drug primarily depends on (a) Volume of distribution (b) Clearance (c) Rate of administration (d) Half life 92. All of the following reactions are catalysed by microsomal enzymes EXCEPT (a) Glucuronidation (b) Acetylation (c) Oxidation (d) Reduction PHARMACODYNAMICS 93. Use of levodopa in parkinsonism can be described as (a) Cytotoxic effect (b) Immunomodulation (c) Anti-metabolic effect (d) Replacement 94. The osmotic activity of mannitol is an example of (a) Physical action (b) Chemical action (c) Enzymatic action (d) Receptor action 95. Chelating agents sequestering heavy metals is example of (a) Receptor action (b) Chemical action (c) Physical action (d) Enzymatic action 96. Which one of the following is an example of competitive enzyme inhibition (a) Acetazolamide—carbonic anhydrase (b) Digoxin—Na K ATPase enzyme (c) Sulphonamides—folate synthase (d) Theophylline—Phosphodiesterase 97. A drug that activates a receptor to produce an effect in the opposite direction to that of recognized agonist is (a) Agonist (b) Antagonist (c) Partial agonist (d) Inverse agonist 98. Partial agonist are drugs which (a) Have affinity but low intrinsic activity (b) Have only affinity (c) Have only intrinsic affinity (d) Have low affinity but high 99. Agonist are drugs having (a) Only affinity for the receptor (b) Only intrinsic activity (c) Affinity and maximum intrinsic affinity (d) Affinity and very low intrinsic affinity 100. Receptors perform the following functions (a) Ligand recognition (b) Signal transduction (c) Disposal of agonist and antagonist (d) Both ligand recognition and signal transduction 101. Which of the following acts by inhibiting enzyme in the body (a) Atropine (b) Allopurinol (c) Levodopa (d) Metoclopramide 102. Following agent is competitive type of enzyme inhibitor (a) Acetazolamide (b) Disulfiram (c) Physostigmine (d) Theophylline 103. Receptor which has 7 helical membrane structures is (a) Tyrosine kinase receptor (b) Gene expression regulating receptor (c) Intrinsic ionic channel containing receptor (d) G protein coupled receptor 104. Receptor with intrinsic ion channel is (a) Histamine H2 receptor (b) Adrenergic alpha 1 receptor (c) GABA benzodiazepine receptor (d) Insulin receptor 105. Which of the following receptors are localized intracellularly (a) Steroid receptor (b) Insulin receptor (c) Muscarinic receptor (d) Dopaminergic receptor 106. All are intracellularly secondary messengers in receptor mediated signal transduction except (a) Cyclic AMP (b) Inositol triphosphate (IP3) (c) Diacylglycerol (DAG) (d) G protein 107. A receptor with enzymatic property is (a) Insulin receptor (b) Progesterone receptor (c) Thyroxin receptor (d) Histamine receptor 108. Down regulation of receptor can occur as a consequence of chronic use of (a) Agonist (b) Antagonist (c) Inverse agonist (d) Partial agonist 109. When optimal therapeutic effect becomes suboptimal above and below a narrow range of doses then a drug is said to exhibit (a) Supramaximal effect (b) Desensitization phenomenon (c) Therapeutic window phenomenon (d) Narrow margin of safety 110. Which of the following drugs exhibit a therapeutic window phenomenon (a) Captopril (b) Furosemide (c) Diazepam (d) Imipramine 111. Therapeutic drug monitoring is particularly useful in the following situations response (a) Minimal inter individual variation, in response (b) Drug with irreversible action (c) Drug actions last longer than the blood levels (d) Cases of poisoning 112. Therapeutic drug monitoring is done in following situations except (a) For prodrugs (b) Drugs with low safety margin (c) Drugs with inter individual variation (d) To check patient compliance 113. Therapeutic drug monitoring is done for following agent (a) Levodopa (b) Omeprazole (c) Phenytoin (d) Enalapril 114. Therapeutic drug monitoring is done for all the following drugs except (a) Digoxin (b) Phenytoin (c) Theophylline (d) Levodopa 115. Drug efficacy (intrinsic affinity) refers to (a) Maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug (b) The therapeutic dose range of the drug (c) The therapeutic index of the drug (d) Dose required to produce the maximal effect 116. Which of the following factor is most relevant for the selection of a particular drug (a) Potency (b) Efficacy (c) Selectivity (d) Cost 117. The therapeutic index is a measure of (a) Safety (b) Potency (c) Efficacy (d) Dose variability 118. Which of the following agent has a low therapeutic index (a) Gentarnicin (b) Penicillin (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Erythromycin 119. All of the following agents has a very narrow therapeutic index except (a) Propranolol (b) Phenytoin (c) Lithium (d) Tricyclic antidepressants 120. Antagonism between two drugs having opposite physiological effect at same time is called (a) Physical antagonism (b) Chemical antagonism (c) Functional antagonism (d) Competitive antagonism 121. Which of the following is an example of physical antagonism (a) Charcoal—alkaloid poisoning (b) Nitrates—cyanide poisoning (c) Naloxone—morphine poisoning (d) Atropine in organ phosphorus com-pound poisoning 122. Drug antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is (a) Competitive (b) Physiological (c) Physical (d) Chemical 123. Atropine in organophosphorus com-pound poisoning is an example of (a) Physical antagonism (b) Physiological antagonism (c) Competitive receptor antagonism (d) Non-competitive antagonism 124. A drug producing no response by itself causes the log dose response curve of another drug B to shift to right in a parallel manner without decreasing the maximal response the drug A is a (a) Competitive antagonist (b) Partial agonist (c) Inverse agonist (d) Non-competitive antagonist 125. Which of the following is not a feature of competitive antagonist (a) Chemical resemblance with agonist (b) Parallel right ward shift of agonist log dose response curve (c) Suppression of maximal agonist response (d) Apparent reduction in agonist affinity for the receptor 126. In competitive antagonism (a) Agonist and antagonist compete for the same receptor (b) In presence of antagonist dose response curve of agonist shifts to the left (c) In presence of antagonist maximal response of antagonist cannot be obtained (d) Antagonist has both affinity and intrinsic activity 127. The correct statement applicable to LD50 is (a) The dose producing maximum response (b) The dose which produces mortality in 50% (c) The dose which produces desired effect in 50% (d) The dose which half of dose producing 100% mortality 128. The dose which is same for most patients is called (a) Standard dose (b) Regulated dose (c) Target dose (d) Titrated dose 129. A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without need for dose individualization is (a) Insulin (b) Mebendazole (c) Warfarin sodium (d) Halothane 130. The dose of following class of drugs has to be adjusted by repeated measurement of the affected physiological parameter (a) Oral contraceptives (b) Antiepileptic (c) Antidepressants (d) Oral anticoagulants 131. The following statement regarding fixed drug combination is not true (a) They are more convenient (b) It can safely be used even when there is contraindication for one of its component (c) The dose of different components cannot be independently adjusted (d) The time course of action of the different component cannot be adjusted 132. Advantages of fixed drug combination are all except (a) Better patient compliance (b) The dose of the drugs used in the combination can be adjusted (c) Drug combinations may be synergistic (d) Side effect of one component may be counteracted by the other 133. All of the following parameters can be considered directly to calculate the dose in a child except (a) Age (b) Weight (c) Body surface area (d) Sex 134. Phenomenon of tachyphylaxis can be seen with (a) Noradrenaline (b) Adrenaline (c) Phenylephrine (d) Tyramine 135. Which of the following statement about drug action in elderly is incorrect (a) Elderly need smaller dose of digoxin (b) The dose of aminoglycoside needs reduction in elderly (c) Salbutamol is more efficacious in elderly (d) Elderly are more prone to harmful effects due to drug interactions 136. Pharmacogenetics deals with (a) Clinically significant genetic-ally mediated variations in drug response (b) Harmful effects on foetus (c) Drug induced genetic defect (d) Development of drugs by DNA recombinant technology 137. Which of the following statement is not a feature of tolerance to a drug (a) Gradual decrease in response with prolonged use of drug (b) Can be associated with down regulation of receptors (c) Increase in dose can result in response (d) Decreased rate of absorption could be responsible for this phenomenon 138. Which of the following agent does not produce tachyphylaxis (a) Ephedrine (b) Methoxamine (c) Amphetamine (d) Tyramine 139. Development of tolerance at cellular level is (a) Dispositional tolerance (b) Adaptive tolerance (c) Pseudo tolerance (d) Cross tolerance 140. Drug tolerance due to decreased availability of the drug at receptor site due to hepatic enzyme induction is known as (a) Cellular tolerance (b) Drug dispositional tolerance (c) Physiological tolerance (d) Pseudo tolerance 141. When there is a gradual decrease in response to a drug taking days or weeks to develop the phenomenon is called (a) Desensitization (b) Tachyphylaxis (c) Tolerance (d) Idiosyncrasy 142. When an inert chemical produces psychopharmacological effect it is (a) Prodrug (b) Placebo (c) Idiosyncratic response (d) Adjuvant 143. The following agent qualitatively produces different actions when administered by different routes (a) Phenytoin (b) Magnesium sulphate (c) Nitroglycerine (d)Mannitol 144. Liver disease can influence drug deposition in the following ways except (a) Some of the prodrugs will be less effective (b) Plasma protein binding of drugs may be reduced (c) Bioavailability of drugs having first pass metabolism may be decreased (d) Reduction in the dosage of some drugs may be necessary 145. Which of the following drugs shows cumulative toxicity when used for pro-longed period (a) Chloroquine (b) Warfarin sodium (c) Prednisolone (d) Enalapril 146. Significant tolerance is generally not developed to (a) Sedative action of phenobarbitone (b) Analgesic action of morphine (c) Inotropic effect of digoxin (d) Tranquilizing action of chlorpromazine 147. Mechanisms responsible for development of tachyphylaxis may be all except (a) Slow dissociation of the drug from its receptors (b) Internalization of receptor (c) Stores of neurotransmitters getting depleted faster than its synthesis (d) Down regulation of receptors 148. Drug is selected on the basis of all the following except (a) Potency (b) Safety (c) Cost (d) Efficacy 149. The term poly pharmacy refers to (a) Multiple drugs used or prescribed at a time (b) Fixed close combination of drugs (c) Frequent administration of drugs (d) Science of preparing dosage forms of drugs 150. Pharmacodynamics includes (a) Drug elimination (b) Drug excretion (c) Drug absorption (d) Mechanism of action 151. Pharmacodynamics deals with (a) Effect of drugs on body (b) Effect of body on drugs (c) Absorption of drugs (d) Metabolism of drugs 152. Most important factor affecting drug absorption in GIT (a) Lipid solubility (b) Protein binding (c) ‘P’ glycoprotein (d) Physical state of drugs 153. The correct sequence of systemic absorption if a drug is administered through skin is (a) Scrotum > forearm > scalp > postauricular skin > planter surface (b) Scrotum > Postauricular skin > forearm > scalp > planter surface (c) Plantar surface > scalp > forearm > postauricular skin > scrotum (d) Post auricular skin > forearm > scrotum > scalp > planter surface 154. About acidic drug true is (a) Best absorbed in acidic medium (b) Best absorbed in alkaline medium (c) Not absorbed in acidic medium (d) Binds to alpha glycoprotein 155. A highly ionized drug (a) Is Excreted mainly by the kidney (b) Can cross the placental barrier easily (c) Is well absorbed from the intestine (d) Accumulates in the cellular lipids 156. Bioavailability is (a) Amount of drug that reach the systemic circulation (b) Drug metabolized in liver before the drug reaches the systemic circulation (c) Drug metabolized in liver after the drug reaches the systemic circulation (d) Maximum by rectal route 157. All of the following statements regarding bioavailability of a drug are true except (a) It is the proportion [fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation (b) Bioavailability of an orally administered drug con be calculated by comparing the Area under Curve after oral and intravenous [IV] administration (c) Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption (d) Bioavailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data 158. The bioavailability of the drug depends upon (a) First pass metabolism (b) Second pass metabolism (c) Volume of distribution (d) Excretion 159. All have high first pass metabolism except (a) Lidocaine (b) Ampicillin (c) Theophylline (d) Morphine 160. Drug having highest first pass metabolism (a) Theophylline (b) Aspirin (c) Tolbutamide (d) Lidocaine 161. A drug having 40% absorption and hepatic extraction ratio of 0.6. What is the bioavailability of that drug (a) 16% (b) 24% (c) 20% (d) 28% 162. In a plasma concentration time curve for a drug following first order kinetics, the absorption rate constant is calculated based on (a) t1/2 (b) Vd (c) Cpss (d) CL 163. Which is the first indication of distribution of a drug in tissues (a) Large volume of distribution (b) Small volume of distribution (c) Renal excretion (d) Salivary excretion 164. Apparent volume of distribution of a drug exceeds total body fluid volume, if a drug is (a) Sequestrated in body tissues (b) Slowly eliminated from body (c) Poorly soluble in plasma (d) Poorly bound to plasma protein 165. Hemodialysis is useful in all of the following except (a) Barbiturate poisoning (b) Methanol poisoning (c) Salicylate poisoning (d) Digoxin poisoning 166. Pharmacovigilance is done for monitoring (a) Drug price (b) Unethical practices (c) Drug safety (d) Pharmacology students 167. Post marketing surveillance is a part of which of clinical trial (a) Phase I (b) Phase II (c) Phase III (d) Phase IV 168. In which of the following phases of clinical trials healthy normal human volunteers participate (a) Phase 1 (b) Phase II (c) Phase III (d) Phase IV 169. Phase III clinical trial is for (a) Efficacy (b) Efficiency (c) Safety (d) Both a & c 170. Tachyphylaxis is seen with which of the following drugs (a) Pethidine (b) Ephedrine (c) Phenoxybenzamine (d) Phentolamine 171. Drugs or biological products for diagnosis, treatment or prevention of a rare disease or condition are called (a) Orphan drugs (b) Rare drugs (c) Extinct drugs (d) Essential drugs 172. Drugs interact with their receptor sites by forming (a) Coordinate covalent bonds (b) Covalent bonds (c) Tonic bonds (d) Van der wall forces with basic drugs only 173. Adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine act through (a) Two pass receptor (b) Ligand gated channel (c) Seven pass receptor (d) One pass receptor 174. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM) involves measurement of plasma concentrations of drugs to find whether the drug levels are within the therapeutic range or not. For TDM to be clinically useful the following criteria should be fulfilled (a) There should be good relationship between plasma concentration and drug dosage (b) The relationship between plasma drug concentration and therapeutic response and/or toxicity should be poor (c) When pharmacodynamics tolerance is suspected (d) When the clinical response cannot be easily monitored 175. Therapeutic index is a measure of (a) Safety (b) Potency (c) Efficacy (d) Selectivity 176. Therapeutic drug monitoring is required in all except (a) Phenytoin (b) Metformin (c) Tacrolimus (d) Cyclosporine 177. Drugs having narrow therapeutic index are (a) Lithium (b) Phenytoin (c) Tricyclic antidepressants (d) All of the above CLINICAL PHARMACOLOGY 178. Study of drugs in humans is termed (a) Pharmacy (b) Clinical pharmacology (c) Experimental pharmacology (d) Toxicology 179. Design of the study aimed to assess the maximum tolerable dose of a new drug is best described as (a) Case control study (b) Phase II Randomized control trial (RCT) (c) Phase I trial (d) Phase III Randomized control trial (RCT) 180. Comparison of efficacy of a new drug B with an existing drug A is done in which phase of clinical trials (a) Phase I (b) Phase II (c) Phase III (d) Phase IV 181. Pharmacovigilance means (a) Monitoring of drug safety (b) Monitoring of unethical trade of drugs (c) Monitoring pharma students (d) Monitoring drug efficacy 182. Good clinical practice (GCP) is not required in (a) Preclinical phase (b) Phase I trial (c) Phase II studies (d) Phase IV studies 183. The aim of post marketing studies is (a) Efficacy of the drug (b) Dosage of the drug (c) Deals with alteration of the drug includes absorption, distribution, binding/storage (d) Safety and comparisons with other medicines 184. Pharmacovigilance continues throughout (a) Post marketing surveillance (b) Pre and post marketing surveillance (c) Pre marketing surveillance (d) None of the above 185. How many people will be selected for phase III trial (a) The whole market will be under surveillance (b) 500-3000 people (c) 20-300 people (d) 20-50 people 186. Good clinical practice (GCP) is not required in (a) Preclinical phase (b) Phase I trial (c) Phase II studies (d) Phase IV studies ADVERSE DRUG REACTIONS 187. Arthurs reaction is which type of allergic reaction (a) Humoral – Type I (b) Humoral – Type II (c) Humoral – Type III (d) Cell Meditated- Type IV 188. Type B adverse drug reaction is (a) Delayed effect of the drug (b) Augmented effect of the drug (c) Allergic Effect of the drug (d) Effect seen on chronic use of the drug 189. Following is type B adverse drug reaction (a) Side effect (b) Idiosyncrasy (c) Toxic effect (d) Dependence 190. All of the following are type A adverse drug reactions except (a) Nephrotoxicity (b) Phototoxicity (c) Allergic reaction (d) Hepatotoxicity 191.Features of type A adverse drug reactions are all except (a) They are dose dependent (b) They are reversible (c) They can be predicted (d) They have immunological basis 192.Unwanted and unavoidable pharmacodynamics effects that occur at therapeutic doses are called (a) Secondary effect (b) Side effects (c) Idiosyncrasy (d) Intolerance 193.Atropine causing dryness of the mouth is an example of (a) Side effect (b) Secondary effect (c) Intolerance (d) Toxic effect 194.Side effect of a drug that has been used as therapeutic effect in another condition is (a) Constipation caused by codeine (b) Cough caused by captopril (c) Diarrhoea caused by ampicillin (d) Muscle dystonia’s caused by chlorpromazine 195.Indirect consequence of primary action of the drug is (a) Side effect (b) Secondary effect (c) Intolerance (d) Toxic effect 196.Toxic effect is (a) Excessive pharmacological action due to over dosage of drug (b) Indirect consequence of primary action of the drug (c) Genetically determined abnormal reaction to a drug (d) Immunological reaction to a drug 197.The following statement about drug allergy is false (a) It is an immunologically mediated reaction (b) It is unrelated to pharmacodynamics profile of the drug (c) It happens with therapeutic dose of the drug (d) It produces stereotype symptoms 198.Emetics are given in the following type of poisoning (a) Corrosive poisoning (b) Kerosene poisoning (c) CNS stimulant poisoning (d) Organphosphorus compound poisoning 199.Drug involved in acute phototoxic reaction is (a) Sulphonamides (b) Demeclocycline (c) Dapsone (d) Thiazides 200.Drug induced disease is known as (a) latrogenic disease (b) Intolerance (c) Idiosyncrasy (d) Allergy 201.Idiosyncrasy refers to (a) Qualitatively abnormal drug response (b) Quantitatively abnormal drug response at therapeutic doses (c) Abnormal response at large doses (d) Fatal reaction to drugs at large doses 202.Which of the following is an idiosyncratic adverse drug reaction (a) Muscle dystonia caused by chlorpromazine (b) Excitement after phenobarbitone (c) Gum hyperplasia caused by phenytoin (d) Dryness of mouth caused by atropine 203.Antihistaminic are beneficial in following allergic reaction (a) Urticaria (b) Polyarteritis nodosa (c) Serum sickness (d) Stevens Johnson syndrome 204.The following is the only effective drug in all types of allergies (a) Adrenaline (b) Prednisolone (c) Chlorpheniramine (d) Sodium cromoglycate 205.Drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is (a) Dopamine tic shop (b) Adrenaline (c) Chlorpheniramine (d) Hydrocortisone 206.The following agent produce both physical and psychological dependsce except (a) Alcohol (b) Amphetamines (c) Morphine (d) Barbiturates 207.The following agent are frequent associated with drug allergies except (a) Penicillin (b) Cephalosporin (c) Sulphonamides (d) Triprolidine 208.Appearance of characteristic withdrawal syndrome on discontinuation of a drug is called (a) Drug addiction (b) Drug abuse (c) Psychological dependence (d) Physical dependence 209.Abrupt withdrawal of therapy is not recommended for following agents except (a) Propranolol (b) Prednisolone (c) Omeprazole (d) Phenytoin 210.Among the following a teratogenic agent Proven teratogenic agent is (a) Warfarin (b) Methyldopa (c) Chloroquine (d) Thyroxine 211.All of the following Agents are teratogenic drug except (a) Tetracycline (b) Methotrexate (c) Penicillin (d) Valproic acid 212.The following are methods of adverse and reaction monitoring except (a) Case reports (b) Cohort study (c) Retrospective analysis (d) Green card system 213.The process of monitoring and assessment of adverse drug reaction is known as (a) Meta-analysis (b) Randomized trials (c) Clinical trials (d) Pharmacovigilance 214.SLE like reaction is caused by (a) Hydralazine (b) Rifampicin (c) Paracetamol (d) Furosemide 215.All of the following drugs can cause SLE like syndrome except (a) Sulphonamide (b) Penicillin (c) Hydrozine (d) Isoniazid 216.Toxic effect of the drug leading to abnormalities of genetic material (genes, chromosomes) is known as (a) Mutagenie effect (b) Teratogenic effect (c) Pharmacogenctics (d) Idiosyncrasy 217.Which of the following is safe drug for nursing mother (a) Chloramphenicol (b) Digoxin (c) Lithium (d) Amphetamines 218.Drug contraindicated during breast feeding period (a) Morphine (b) Propranolol (c) Diuretics (d) Bromocriptine 219.Drug safely given in Pregnancy (a) Antifolate (b) Tetracycline (c) Chloroquine (d) Primaquine 220.Amphetamine causes which of the following (a) IUGR (b) Cardiac anomaly (c) Cleft lip (d) All the above 221.Carbimazol is associated with all except (a) Choanal atresia (b) Cleft lip and palate (c) Scalp defect (d) Neck swelling 222.Which of the following belongs to category X risk, if given to pregnant women (a) Lidocaine (b) Morphine (c) Aspirin (d) Thalidomide 223.Type B adverse drug reaction (a) Augmented effect of drug (b) Unpredictable Bizarre reaction (c) Effect seen on chronic use of drug (d) Delayed effect of drug 224.There are some undesirable but unavoidable pharmacodynamics effects of a drug, which are known as (a) Toxic effects (b) Idiosyncrasy (c) Side effects (d) Intolerance 225.A new-born baby was born with phocomelia. It results due to which drug taken by mother during pregnancy (a) Tetracycline (b) Thalidomide (c) Warfarin (d) Alcohol Welcome to Pharmacy India, your go-to destination for comprehensive and high-quality Pharmacology ANS Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)! We are excited to offer a rich repository of MCQs tailored for pharmacy professionals, students, and enthusiasts seeking to enhance their knowledge in the dynamic field of pharmacology.

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Parasympathomimetics 1. Cholinomimetics are not used in (a) Glaucoma (b) Myasthenia gravis (c) Postoperative atony (d) Partial heart block 2. A patient presents to emergency with pinpoint pupil, salivation, lacrimation, tremors and red tears. Plasma cholinesterase level was 30% of normal. Most probable Diagnosis is (a) Organophosphate poisoning (b) Datura poisoning (c) Opioid poisoning (d) Pontine haemorrhage 3. Lid retraction is caused by (a) Bimatoprost (b) Latanoprost (c) Brimonidine (d) Apraclonidine 4. What is the probable diagnosis in a patient with a dilated pupil not responsive to 1% pilocarpine (a) Diabetic 3rd nerve palsy (b) Adie’s tonic pupil (c) Uncal herniation (d) Pharmacological block 5. Dilator papillae is supplied by (a) Postganglionic parasympathetic from Edinger Westphal nucleus (b) Postganglionic sympathetic from cervical sympathetic chain (c) Third cranial nerve (d) Sympathetic fibres of front orbtital branch of trigeminal nerve 6. A patient came to the casualty with acute bronchial asthma after treatment for glaucoma. The probable drug may be (a) Timolol (b) Betaxolol (c) Latanoprost (d) Anticholinesterase 7. Which of the following drugs should not be given in a patient with acute angle closure glaucoma (a) Pilocarpine (b) Clozapine (c) Fluphenazine (d) Paroxetine 8. Synaptic transmission in the autonomic ganglion is usually (a) Adrenergic (b) Peptidergic (c) Cholinergic (d) Mediated by substance P 9. Which of the following cranial nerve does not contain parasympathetic motor (GVE) fibres (a) III (b) VI (c) IX (d) X 10. Major neurotransmitter released at end organ effectors of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is (a) Adrenaline (b) Noradrenaline (c) Dopamine (d) Acetylcholine 11. All of the following agents are used in glaucoma treatment, except (a) Apraclonidine (b) Timolol (c) Pilocarpine (d) Metoprolol 12. Which of the following antiglaucoma medication is UNSAFE in infants (a) Timolol (b) Brimonidine (c) Latanoprost (d) Dorzolamide 13. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is done by using (a) Edrophonium (b) Neostigmine (c) Succinylcholine (d) Atropine 14. Which of the following statements is FALSE (a) Hemicholinium prevents the release of ACh from storage vesicles (b) Botulinum toxin increase the ACh release (c) Pralidoxime reactivates acetylcholine esterase (d) Vesamicol inhibit the uptake of choline (e) Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholinesterase 15. True statements about neostigmine are (a) It is a quaternary ammonium compound (b) It is metabolised by liver (c) It can cross the blood brain barrier (d) Prominent effect on cardiac muscle 16. Which of the following provides the best explanation for neostigmine being preferred over physostigmine for treating myasthenia gravis (a) It is better absorbed orally (b) It has longer duration of action (c) It has additional direct agonistic action on nicotinic receptors at the muscle end plate (d) It penetrates blood brain barrier 17. Which of the following properties make pyridostigmine different from neostigmine (a) It is more potent (b) It is longer acting (c) It produces less muscarinic side effects (d) It does not have any direct action on NM receptors 18. Which of the following is the longest acting ocular beta blocker (a) Timolol (b) Betaxolol (c) Cartiolol (d) Metoprolol 19. Several children at a summer camp were hospitalized with symptoms thought to be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum toxin. The effects of botulinum toxin are likely to include (a) Bronchospasm (b) Cycloplegia (c) Diarrhea (d) Skeletal muscle spasms 20. Pinpoint pupil suggests poisoning with (a) DDT (b) Opiates (c) Belladonna (d) Barbiturates 21. Which of the following drug binds only with the anionic site of cholinesterase (a) Physostigmine (b) Neostigmine (c) Edrophonium (d) Pyridostigmine 22. Cholinomimetics are not used is (a) Glaucoma (b) Myasthenia gravis (c) Postoperative atony (d) Partial heart block 23. Correct match of drug and mechanism of action is (a) Brimonidine – Decrease aqueous production (b) Latanoprost – Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (c) Pilocarpine – Increases uvoescleral outflow (d) Betaxolol – Increases trabecular outflow 24. Cholinomimetic drugs can be used for the treatment of all the following conditions EXCEPT (a) Closed angle Glaucoma (b) Bradycardia (c) Cobra bite (d) Myasthenia gravis 25. Which of the following cranial nerves does not carry parasympathetic outflow (a) Oculomotor (b) Trochlear (c) Facial (d) Glossopharyngeal 26. Mechanism of action of pralidoxime is (a) Stimulation of ACh receptors (b) Inhibition of breakdown of ACh (c) Blockade of ACh receptors (d) Reactivation of AChE enzyme 27. All of the following effects are seen with cholinergic muscarinic receptor stimulation except (a) Sweating (b) Rise in blood pressure (c) Bradycardia (d) Urination 28. A patient Raj Kishore was given pilocarpine. All of the following can be the features seen in him except (a) Sweating (b) Salivation (c) Miosis (d) Cycloplegia 29. Agonistic action at which of the following adrenergic receptors results in the reduction of aqueous secretion (a) β1 receptor (b) β2 receptor (c) M2 receptor (d) α2 receptor 30. A direct acting cholinomimetic that is lipid soluble and has been used in the treatment of glaucoma is (a) Acetylcholine (b) Physostigmine (c) Pilocarpine (d) Neostigmine Parasympatholytics 31. All of the following drugs are useful in detrusor instability except (a) Solefenacin (b) Tolterodine (c) Flavoxate (d) Duloxetine 32. Use of Tiotropium is contraindicated in (a) Bronchial asthma (b) Hypertension (c) Urinary retention (d) Peptic ulcer disease 33. Which one of the following drugs does not produce central anticholinergic syndrome (a) Atropine sulphate (b) Glycopyrrolate (c) Antihistaminics (d) Tricyclic antidepressants 34. Atropine can cause (a) Decreased cardiac output (b) Heart block (c) Hypertension (d) Mydriasis 35. Atropine poisoning causes all, EXCEPT (a) Dilated pupil (b) Excitement (c) Excessive salivation (d) Hot skin 36. All of the following are actions of muscarinic antagonists except (a) Decreases gastric secretion (b) Prolongs AV conduction (c) Decreases tracheobronchial secretions (d) Causes contraction of radial muscle of iris 37. All of the following drug is used for overactive bladder except (a) Duloxetine (b) Darifenacin (c) Oxybutynin (d) Flavoxate 38. Botulinum toxin produces skeletal muscle paralysis by (a) Enhancing release of norepinephrine (b) Inhibiting release of acetylcholine (c) Direct damage to nerve endings (d) Producing haemolysis 39. Drug of choice for mushroom poisoning is (a) Atropine (b) Physostigmine (c) Adrenaline (d) Carbachol 40. Which of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility (a) Glycopyrrolate (b) Atropine (c) Neostigmine (d) Fentanyl 41. Which of the following drugs does not cross blood placental barrier (a) Atropine (b) Glycopyrolate (c) Physostigmime (d) Hyoscine hydro bromide 42. All of the following are actions of muscarinic agonists except (a) Decreases gastric secretion (b) Prolongs AV conduction (c) Decreases tracheobronchial secretions (d) Causes contraction of radial muscle of iris 43. Which of the following drug is commonly used in narcoanalysis (a) Atropine sulphate (b) Scopolamine hydrochloride (c) Phenobarbitone (d) Morphine 44. All of the following drugs are useful in detrusor instability except (a) Solefenacin (b) Tolterodine (c) Flavoxate (d) Duloxetine 45. Botulinum toxin blocks neuromuscular transmission by which of the following mechanism (a) Closure of Ca++ channels at presynaptic membrane (b) Closure of Na+ channels at the postsynaptic membrane (c) Opening of K+ channels at the presynaptic membrane (d) Opening of Cl– channels at the postsynaptic membrane 46. Botulinum toxin produces skeletal muscle paralysis by (a) Enhancing release of norepinephrine (b) Inhibiting release of acetylcholine (c) Direct damage to nerve endings (d) Producing hemolysis 47. Use of tiotropium is contraindicated in (a) Bronchial asthma (b) Hypertension (c) Urinary retention (d) Peptic ulcer disease 48. Drug of choice for mushroom poisoning is (a) Atropine (b) Physostigmine (c) Adrenaline (d) Carbachol 49. Which one of the following drugs does not produce central anticholinergic syndrome (a) Atropine sulphate (b) Glycopyrrolate (c) Antihistaminic (d) Tricyclic antidepressants 50. Atropine can cause (a) Decreased cardiac output (b) Heart block (c) Hypertension (d) Mydriasis 51. Intramuscular injection of atropine causes initial bradycardia. The reason for this effect being seen is (a) Stimulation of medullary vagal center (b) Stimulation of vagal ganglia (c) Blockade of M2 receptors of SA nodal cells (d) Blockade of muscarinic auto receptor on vagal nerve endings 52. The difference between hyoscine and atropine is that hyoscine (a) Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses (b) Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye (c) Is longer acting (d) Has weaker antimotion sickness activity 53. You are being asked to give your expert opinion as a toxicologist regarding an effective antidote for belladonna poisoning. Which of the following agents would you suggest (a) Neostigmine (b) Physostigmine (c) Pilocarpine (d) Methacholine 54. What is the most dangerous effect of belladonna in very young children (a) Dehydration (b) Hallucination (c) Hypertension (d) Hyperthermia 55. Accepted therapeutic indications for the use of antimuscarinic drugs include all of the Following except (a) Hypertension (b) Motion sickness (c) Parkinson’s disease (d) To produce mydriasis and cycloplegia 56. Which is the shortest acting mydriatic (a) Atropine (b) Tropicamide (c) Cyclopentolate (d) Homatropine 57. Oxybutynin acts by (a) Nicotine receptor stimulation (b) Muscarinic receptor stimulation (c) Muscarinic receptor inhibition (d) α-receptor inhibition 58. Atropine poisoning causes all, EXCEPT (a) Dilated pupil (b) Excitement (c) Excessive salivation (d) Hot skin 59. Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of motion sickness (a) Hyoscine (b) Metoclopramide (c) Prochlorperazine (d) Ondansetron 60. Clinical signs of atropine intoxication are as follows, EXCEPT (a) Decreased bowel sounds (b) Dry skin (c) Scarlet flushing of face (d) Increased bowel sounds Sympathomimetic 61. Which of these is an FDA approved indication for use of modafinil as an adjunct (a) Major depression and associated lethargy (b) Narcolepsy (c) Obstructive sleep apnea (d) Shift work disorder 62. Vasopressor of choice in pregnancy is (a) Ephedrine (b) Phenylephrine (c) Methoxamine (d) Mephentermine 63. Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of all the following conditions except (a) Acute decompensated heart failure (b) Hypotension (c) Hypertension (d) Erectile dysfunction 64. Which of the following is not an alpha adrenoceptor agonist (a) Clonidine (b) Methyldopa (c) Guanabenz (d) Guanfacine 65. Uses of α2 agonists are all except (a) To produce sedation (b) Glaucoma (c) Benign hyperplasia of prostate (d) Hypertension 66. The only non-catecholamine sympathomimetic drug out of the following is (a) Adrenaline (b) Ephedrine (c) Dopamine (d) Isoprenaline 67. Which of the following drugs shows the phenomenon of vasomotor reversal of Dale after administration of an α adrenergic blocker (a) Adrenaline (b) Noradrenaline (c) Isoprenaline (d) All of the above 68. A drug is shown to activate dopaminergic D1 and D2 and adrenergic α and β1 but not β2 receptors. Which of the following can be the drug being talked about (a) Dopamine (b) Dobutamine (c) Methoxamine (d) Phenylephrine 69. Dopamine is preferred in treatment of shock because of (a) Renal vasodilatory effect (b) Increased cardiac output (c) Peripheral vasoconstriction (d) Prolonged action 70. All are side effects of salbutamol EXCEPT (a) Palpitation (b) Muscle tremors (c) Sedation (d) Throat irritation 71. Epinephrine is most useful in (a) Bronchial asthma (b) Anaphylactic shock (c) Peripheral vascular disease (d) Wide angle glaucoma 72. Which of the following drug acts as combined alpha and beta adrenergic receptor agonist (a) Dobutamine (b) Phenylephrine (c) Fenoldopam (d) Noradrenaline 73. Which of the following agent is not used in erectile dysfunction (a) PGE2 (b) Vardenafil (c) Phenylephrine (d) Alprostadil 74. What is True about dobutamine (a) Dobutamine decreases peripheral resistance (b) Acts on D1 and D2 receptors (c) Decrease kidney circulation (d) Has no effect on coronary circulation 75. Which of the following drug is a long acting beta2 agonist (a) Albuterol (b) Salmeterol (c) Pirbuterol (d) Orciprenaline 76. One of the following activities is not mediated through β2 adrenergic receptors (a) Stimulation of lipolysis (b) Increased hepatic gluconeogenesis (c) Increased muscle glycogenolysis (d) Smooth muscle relaxation 77. Fenoldopam is used in the management of (a) Hypertensive emergencies (b) Congestive heart failure (c) Migraine prophylaxis (d) Tachyarrhythmia 78. The rate-limiting step for norepinephrine synthesis is (a) Conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine (b) Conversion of tyrosine to DOPA (c) Conversion of DOPA to dopamine (d) Conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine 79. Which of the following is an adverse effect of β2 agonists (a) Hypoglycaemia (b) Hypomagnesaemia (c) Hypophosphatemia (d) Hypokalaemia 80. Which is not an endogenous catecholamine (a) Dopamine (b) Dobutamine (c) Adrenaline (d) Noradrenaline 81. β2 selective agonists are often effective in (a) Angina due to coronary insufficiency (b) Asthma (c) Delayed labour (d) All the above 82. Which of the following increases systolic and diastolic BP for prolonged period (a) Epinephrine (b) Dopamine (c) Ephedrine (d) All of these 83. Norepinephrine action at the synaptic cleft is terminated by (a) Metabolism by COMT (b) Metabolism by MAO (c) Reuptake (d) Metabolism by acetyl cholinesterase 84. Which of the following is not true about adrenergic receptors (a) α1 receptors are usually presynaptic (b) β1 receptors are predominantly found in heart (c) Noradrenaline stimulates β1 receptors (d) α2 receptor stimulation inhibits transmitter release 85. Major Metabolite of noradrenaline in urine is (a) VMA (b) HVA (c) Normetanephrine (d) Metanephrine 86. Methyldopa acts on which of the following receptor (a) α2 (b) α1 (c) β1 (d) D1 87. Which of the following drug acts as combined alpha and beta adrenergic receptor agonist (a) Dobutamine (b) Phenylephrine (c) Fenoldopam (d) Noradrenaline 88. Which of the following agent is not used in erectile dysfunction (a) PGE2 (b) Vardenafil (c) Phenylephrine (d) Alprostadil 89. Which is True about dobutamine (a) Dobutamine decreases peripheral resistance (b) Acts on D1 and D2 receptors (c) Decrease kidney circulation (d) Has no effect on coronary circulation 90. Which of the following concentrations of epinephrine does not correspond to the respective route of administration (a) 1:10000 for intravenous route (b) 1:1000 for inhalational route (c) 1:1000 for intramuscular route (d) 1:1000 for subcutaneous route Sympatholytic 91. The most important action of beta blockers in glaucoma is which of the following (a) Membrane stabilizing effect (b) Retinal neuron protecting effect (c) Decrease in the production of aqueous humour (d) Pupillary constriction 92. All of the following are therapeutic uses of prazosin, except (a) Peripheral vascular disease (b) Phaeochromocytoma (c) Lupus Erythematous (d) Scorpion sting 93. All of the following drugs are nonselective β blockers with no pharmacological action on any other receptor EXCEPT (a) Propranolol (b) Timolol (c) Sotalol (d) Carvedilol 94. All of the following are cardio selective beta blockers except (a) Atenolol (b) Esmolol (c) Bisoprolol (d) Propranolol 95. Beta blockers that can be used in renal failure are all except (a) Propranolol (b) Pindolol (c) Sotalol (d) Oxprenolol 96. Beta blocker with peripheral vasodilator action is (a) Carvedilol (b) Propranolol (c) Atenolol (d) Acebutolol 97. The following is not true about the use of beta blockers in heart failure (a) It should be initiated at very low dose (b) It is most effective in new onset decompensated heart failure (c) Slow upward titration of dose is required (d) Carvedilol is most widely used in this condition 98. All are true about beta blockers except (a) Atenolol is longer acting than metoprolol (b) Labetalol has both alpha and beta blocking action (c) Carvedilol has alpha agonistic and selective β1 blocking action (d) Nadolol has longest half-life 99. Combined alpha and beta blockers are (a) Carvedilol (b) Prazosin (c) Tamsulosin (d) Milrinone 100. True statement about esmolol is/are (a) It is an α Blocker (b) It has a long half-life (c) It is not cardio selective (d) It can cause bradycardia 101. Contraindications of beta blockers are (a) Anaemia (b) Heart block (c) Hypertension (d) Arrhythmia 102. Which of the following is used in beta blocker overdose (a) Atropine (b) Norepinephrine (c) Insulin (d) Thyroxin 103. Side effects of timolol maleate include (a) Hypertension (b) Nausea (c) Depression (d) Tachycardia 104. Βeta blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic properties are (a) Propanolol (b) Pindolol (c) Esmolol (d) Butoxamine 105. Properties making cardio selective beta blockers desirable are (a) Less bronchoconstriction (b) Less likely to cause glucose intolerance (c) May be used in Raynaud’s disease (d) All of the above 106. Propanolol is useful in the treatment of all of the following except (a) Angina (b) Partial atrioventricular block (c) Idiopathic hypertrophic sub aortic cardiomyopathy (d) Familial tremor 107. Atenolol is indicated in all EXCEPT (a) Hypertension (b) Partial heart block (c) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (d) Classical angina 108. Which of the following is a selective β2 antagonist (a) Esmolol (b) Betaxolol (c) Butoxamine (d) Celiprolol 109. The most important action of beta blockers in glaucoma is which of the following (a) Membrane stabilizing effect (b) Retinal neuron protecting effect (c) Decrease in the production of aqueous humor (d) Pupillary constriction 110. All of the following are therapeutic uses of prazosin, except (a) Peripheral vascular disease (b) Phaeochromocytoma (c) Lupus Erythematosus (d) Scorpion sting 111. All of the following drugs are nonselective β blockers with no pharmacological action on any other receptor EXCEPT (a) Propanolol (b) Timolol (c) Sotalol (d) Carvedilol 112. All of the following are cardio selective beta blockers except (a) Atenolol (b) Esmolol (c) Bisoprolol (d) Propanolol 113. Beta blockers that can be used in renal failure are allexcept (a) Propanolol (b) Pindolol (c) Sotalol (d) Oxprenolol 114. Beta blocker with peripheral vasodilator action is (a) Carvedilol (b) Propranolol (c) Atenolol (d) Acebutolol 115. The following is not true about the use of beta blockers in heart failure (a) It should be initiated at very low dose (b) It is most effective in new onset decompensated heart failure (c) Slow upward titration of dose is required (d) Carvedilol is most widely used in this condition 116. All are true about beta blockers except (a) Atenolol is longer acting than metoprolol (b) Labetalol has both alpha and beta blocking action (c) Carvedilol has alpha agonistic and selective β1 blocking action (d) Nadolol has longest half life 117. Beta adrenergic blocker having cardioselectivity, intrinsic sympathomimetic activity and membrane stabilizing property is (a) Carvedilol (b) Atenolol (c) Acebutolol (d) Metoprolol 118. All of the following are features of metoprolol in comparison to propanolol except (a) It is ineffective in suppressing muscle tremor (b) It is safer in diabetics (c) It is less likely to cause bradycardia (d) It is less likely to worsen Raynaud’s disease 119. Which of the following effects of adrenaline would be blocked by phentolamine but not by propanolol (a) Cardiac stimulation (b) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle (c) Relaxation of the uterus (d) Contraction of the radial smooth muscle in the iris 120. Propanolol is useful in the treatment of all of the following except (a) Angina (b) Partial atrioventricular block (c) Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic cardiomyopathy (d) Familial tremor Welcome to Pharmacy India, your go-to destination for comprehensive and high-quality Pharmacology Autacoids Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)! 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HISTAMINICS, ANTIHISTAMINICS and 5HT 1. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistaminic agent (a) Cetirizine (b) Cyclizine (c) Loratidine (d) Fexofenadine 2. A peptide that causes increased capillary permeability and edema is (a) Histamine (b) Angiotensin II (c) Bradykinin (d) Renin 3. Ergometrine is commonly used for (a) PostPartum Hemorrhage (b) To shorten 2nd stage of labour (c) Dysmenorrhea (d) Toxemia of pregnancy 4. The H3 receptor agonist exhibits all of the following actions EXCEPT (a) Inhibition of H1 receptor induced wakefulness (b) Increase in H1 mediated gastrin secretion (c) Inhibition of H1 mediated bronchoconstriction (d) Negative chronotropic effect on atria 5. Second generation antihistaminic used in allergic rhinitis are (a) Azelastine (b) Fexofenadine (c) Desloratidine (d) All of the above 6. All of the following actions of histamine are mediated through H1 receptors except (a) Release of EDRF from vascular endothelium resulting in vasodilation (b) Direct action on vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilation (c) Bronchoconstriction (d) Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla 7. Which of the following drugs can cause hypotension by release of histamine from mast cells (a) Aspirin (b) Procaine (c) Morphine (d) Sulfadiazine 8. All of the following antihistaminic agents lack anticholinergic property except (a) Promethazine (b) Astemizole (c) Levocetirizine (d) Loratidine 9. The drug possessing antagonistic action at histamine, serotonin and muscarinic receptors is (a) Promethazine (b) Terfenadine (c) Cyproheptadine (d) Hydroxyzine 10. Agents which have limited activity on local area is termed as (a) Autacoids (b) Hormones (c) Enzymes (d) All of the above 11. Histamine is released from (a) Parietal cell (b) Mast cell (c) Goblet cell (d) All of the above 12. Which of the following is location of non-mast cell histamine (a) Brain (b) Epidermis (c) Gastric mucosa (d) All of the above 13. Histamine effect on bronchial smooth muscle (a) Contraction (b) Relaxation (c) No effect (d) Contraction and then Relaxation 14. Histamine affect which receptor to stimulate gastric acid secretion (a) H1 (b) H2 (c) H3 (d) H4 15. Which of the following drug does not produce drowsiness as compare to 1st generation antihistaminic drugs (a) Cetirizine (b) Levocetirizine (c) Diphenhydramine (d) Both A and B 16. Antivertigo drug which modulates calcium channels and has prominent labyrinthine suppressant property is (a) Cyproheptadine (b) Cinnarizine (c) Clemastine (d) Cetirizine 17. Ketoconazole should not be given to a patient being treated with astemizole because (a) Ketoconazole induces the metabolism of astemizole (b) Dangerous ventricular arrhythmias can occur (c) Astemizole inhibits the metabolism of ketoconazole (d) Astemizole antagonizes the antifungal action of ketoconazole 18. True statement about fexofenadine is (a) It undergoes high first pass metabolism in liver (b) Terfenadine is an active metabolite of this drug (c) It does not block cardiac K+ channels (d) It has high affinity for central H1 receptors 19. H1 antihistaminic having best topical activity is (a) Loratadine (b) Cetrizine (c) Astemizole (d) Azelastine 20. Histamine exerts the following actions EXCEPT (a) Dilatation of large blood vessels (b) Dilatation of small blood vessels (c) Stimulation of isolated Guinea pig heart (d) Itching 21. All 5HT receptors are heptahelical serpentine receptors except (a) 5HT1 (b) 5HT2 (c) 5HT3 (d) 5HT4 22. Antihistaminic used in motion sickness is (a) Cetirizine (b) Meclizine (c) Diphenhydramine (d) Fexofenadine 23. Most important receptor involved in chemotherapy induced vomiting is (a) Histamine H1 receptor (b) Serotonin 5HT3 receptor (c) Dopamine D2 receptor (d) Opioid µ receptor 24. Selective 5HT4 agonist useful in gastroesophageal reflux disease and lacking arrhythmogenic property is (a) Buspirone (b) Sumatriptan (c) Cisapride (d) Tegaserod 25. The nonsedative antihistamines are all EXCEPT one (a) Fexofenadine (b) Desloratidine (c) Levocetirizine (d) Cinnarizine 26. Ketanserin is (a) 5HT1B antagonist (b) 5HT2 antagonist (c) 5HT1A agonist (d) 5HT1D antagonist 27. The long acting classical H1 antihistaminic include which of the following (a) Chlorpheniramine (b) Astemizole (c) Cetrizine (d) Clemastine 28. Which of the following drugs, if given with terfenadine, can cause ventricular arrhythmias (a) Ketoconazole (b) Griseofulvin (c) Ampicillin (d) Sparfloxacin 29. One of the following is not a 5HT receptor antagonist (a) Ketanserin (b) Lanreotide (c) Methysergide (d) Tropisetron 30. Antihistaminic used in motion sickness is (a) Cetirizine (b) Meclizine (c) Diphenhydramine (d) Fexofenadine 31. Select the antihistaminic which modulates calcium channels and has prominent labyrinthine suppressant property (a) Cyproheptadine (b) Cinnarizine (c) Clemastine (d) Cetirizine 32. 5HT antagonist is (a) Clozapine (b) Ketanserin (c) Sumatriptan (d) Cisapride 33. Which of the following serotonergic receptors is an autoreceptor (a) 5HT1A (b) 5HT2A (c) 5HT3 (d) 5HT4 34. Which of the following anxiolytic is a 5HT 1A agonist (a) Benzodiazepines (b) Hydroxyzine (c) Buspirone (d) Sertaline 35. Which one is not an action of Serotonin 5HT (a) increases motility (b) Contract of smooth muscles (c) Increase of Urine (d) Increases capillary pressure & permeability 36. Which one of the following the 5HT distribute to (a) A neurotransmitter, in midbrain (b) A smooth muscles (c) Pancreas (d) Thyroid glands 37. Which of the following statement is incorrect for 5 – HT1 (a) It plays a major role in regulation of GI motility (b) It promotes aggregation of platelets (c) It acts only as peripheral neuro transmitter (d) It acts as mediator in reaction to scorpion bite 38. Granisetron is used in (a) Motion sickness (b) Sedation in endoscopy (c) Chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting (d) Gastrooesophageal reflux disease 39. Methysergide used as drug of choice in migraine but not now because (a) MI (b) Peptic ulcer (c) Pulmonary fibrosis (d) Arrhythmias Ergot Alkaloids and Migraine 40. Drugs used in prophylaxis of migraine are all EXCEPT (a) Propranolol (b) Flunarizine (c) Topiramate (d) Levetiracetam 41. All of the following can be used for prophylaxis of migraine except (a) Sumatriptan (b) Valproate (c) Propranolol (d) Topiramate 42. Drugs used for prophylaxis of migraine is/are (a) Flunarizine (b) Beta blocker (c) Sodium valproate (d) All of the above 43. Which of the following is most useful for reversing severe ergot induced vasospasm (a) Ergotamine (b) Methysergide (c) Nitroprusside (d) Phenoxybenzamine 44. Selective 5HT1B/1D receptor agonist useful in acute migraine is (a) Buspirone (b) Ondansetron (c) Frovatriptan (d) Ketanserin 45. Ergot alkaloid commonly used to prevent postpartum haemorrhage is (a) Methyl ergometrine (b) Ergotamine (c) Dihydroergotamine (d) Dihydroergotoxine 46. Choose the correct statement about sumatriptan (a) It activates 5HT1A receptors (b) It tends to suppress both pain and vomiting in migraine (c) It does not carry risk of precipitating coronary vasospasm (d) It is combined with ergotamine for the treatment of severe migraine 47. Drug of choice in acute severe migraine is (a) Ergotamine (b) Sumatriptan (c) Dihydroergotamine (d) Propranolol 48. Select the ergot compound which is primarily used for dementia (a) Bromocriptine (b) Ergotamine (c) Codergocrine (d) Methysergide 49. The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has (a) High oral bioavailability (b) Better CNS penetrability (c) Weaker oxytocic action (d) Strong anti5HT action 50. Methyl ergometrine is used in the prophylaxis of (a) Migraine (b) Postpartum haemorrhage (c) PIH (d) None of the above 51. Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine (a) Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine (b) Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment of migraine attacks (c) Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases (d) Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided 52. The non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are more effective in migraine (a) Without aura (b) With aura (c) Than ergotamine (d) When combined with propranolol 53. Ergotamine relieves migraine by (a) Blocking vascular α adrenergic receptors (b) Blocking vascular 5HT2 receptors (c) Dilating cranial arteriovenous shunt channels (d) Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation 54. Prophylactic therapy of migraine (a) Is recommended in all cases (b) Benefits upto 70% patients of moderate to severe migraine (c) Needs to be continued lifelong without interruption (d) Reduces the severity but increases the frequency of migraine attacks Eicosanoids and NSAIDs 55. Which of the following is/are example of eicosanoid (a) Prostaglandin (b) Prostacyclin (c) Thromboxane (d) All of the above 56. Paracetamol generally affect which of the following type of COX (a) COX1 (b) COX2 (c) COX3 (d) None of the above 57. Angiotensinogen is synthesized in (a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Brain (d) Heart 58. Following are uses of prostaglandins EXCEPT (a) First trimester of pregnancy (b) Cervical ripening during labour (c) Postpartum haemorrhage (d) Dysmenorrhoea 59. Which of the prostaglandin analogue is used in wide angle glaucoma (a) PGE1 (b) PGF2alpha (c) PGE2 (d) PGD2 60. Which of the following drugs inhibit an enzyme in the prostaglandin synthesis (a) Alteplase (b) Aspirin (c) Aprotinin (d) Aminocaproic acid 61. Which of the prostaglandin analogue is used in NSAID induced gastritis (a) PGE1 (b) PGF2alpha (c) PGE2 (d) PGD2 62. Substance P has following number of amino acids (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 63. NSAID drugs have following action (a) Analgesic (b) AntiPyretic (c) AntiInflammatory (d) All of the above 64. Which of the following is side effect of NSAID (a) Gastric erosion (b) Peptic ulcer (c) Initiation of bleeding (d) All of the above 65. Acetaminophen is also known as (a) Paracetamol (b) Aceclofenac (c) Nimesulide (d) Aspirin 66. The side effect of NSAID in most of the case is generally associated with (a) Inhibition of COX1 (b) Inhibition of COX2 (c) Inhibition of COX3 (d) All of the above 67. Aspirin inhibits which of the following enzymes (a) Lipoprotein lipase (b) Lipoxygenase (c) Cyclooxygenase (d) Phospholipase D 68. A patient on aspirin will have increase in (a) Bleeding time (b) Clotting time (c) Prothrombin time (d) Activated partial thromboplastin time 69. Misoprostol is a (a) Prostaglandin E1 analogue (b) Prostaglandin E2 analogue (c) Prostaglandin antagonist (d) Antiprogestin 70. All of the following are correct statements EXCEPT (a) PGs and leukotrienes are derived from arachidonic acid (b) Cox II is induced by cytokines at the site of inflammation (c) Cox I is an inducible enzyme (d) Leukotrienes cause smooth muscle contraction 71. Which NSAID undergoes enterohepatic circulation (a) Phenylbutazone (b) Aspirin (c) Ibuprofen (d) Piroxicam 72. Therapeutic uses of prostaglandin El include all of the following EXCEPT (a) Medical termination of pregnancy (b) Impotence (c) Primary pulmonary hypertension (d) Maintenance of patent ductus arteriosus 73. True statements about TXA2 is (a) It is formed in platelets (b) It is formed from PGG2/H2 (c) It is prothrombotic (d) All of the above 74. COX pathway is inhibited by (a) Aspirin (b) Ondansetron (c) Betamethasone (d) Calcitonin 75. Which of the following is/are cyclooxygenase inhibitors (a) Naproxen (b) Prednisolone (c) Sumatriptan (d) Betamethasone 76. Which of the following drugs inhibit platelet cyclooxygenase reversibly (a) Alprostadil (b) Aspirin (c) Ibuprofen (d) Prednisolone 77. Which of the following is a component of slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis (SRS(A) (a) LTC4 (b) LTB4 (c) Misoprostol (d) Prostacyclin 78. Which of the following drugs reduces the activity of phospholipase A2 (a) Alprostadil (b) Aspirin (c) Ibuprofen (d) Prednisolone 79. The chief advantage of ketorolac over aspirin is that the former (a) Can be combined more safely with an opioid such as codeine (b) Does not prolong bleeding time (c) Is available in a parenteral formulation that can be used intramuscularly or intravenously (d) Is less likely to cause acute renal failure in patients with preexisting renal impairment 80. Irreversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase is (a) Aspirin (b) Phenylbutazone (c) Indomethacin (d) Piroxicam 81. Prostaglandin E2 analogs can be used for all of the following conditions except (a) Treatment of patent ductus arteriosus (b) Treatment of bronchial asthma (c) Cervical priming (d) Treatment of NSAID induced peptic ulcer 82. Aspirin in low doses produces long lasting inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase because (a) Platelet contain low quantity of COX (b) Platelets cannot synthesize fresh COX molecules (c) Platelets bind aspirin with high affinity (d) Platelet COX is inducible 83. Zafirlukast acts by blocking the action of (a) Prostacyclin (b) Platelet activating factor (c) Leukotriene B4 (d) Leukotriene C4/D4 84. True statement about cyclooxygenase –2 is (a) It is not inhibited by indomethacin (b) It is inducible (c) It generates cytoprotective prostaglandins in gastric mucosa (d) It is found only in fetal tissues 85. All of the following effects are produced by inhibitors of prostaglandin synthesis except (a) Prolongation of bleeding time (b) Prolongation of prothrombin time (c) Prolongation of labour (d) Gastric mucosal damage 86. All of the following actions of aspirin are mediated by inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis except (a) Analgesia (b) Closure of patent ductus arteriosus (c) Hyperventilation (d) Bleeding tendency 87. Use of aspirin in a diabetic patient can result in (a) Hyperglycemia (b) Hypoglycemia (c) Ketoacidosis (d) Alkalosis 88. The plasma half-life of aspirin (a) Is independent of dose (b) Is longer for anti-inflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose (c) Is shorter for anti-inflammatory doses compared to that for analgesic dose (d) Can be increased by alkalinizing the urine 89. Analgesic that itself can cause headache as a side effect is (a) Indomethacin (b) Mephenamic acid (c) Piroxicam (d) Aspirin 90. Rofecoxib as compared to indomethacin is (a) Less likely to cause gastric ulcer and their complications (b) Likely to be more effective in rheumatoid arthritis (c) Not likely to produce renal complications (d) All of the above 91. NSAID proposed to be acting via inhibition of COX3 is (a) Nimesulide (b) Paracetamol (c) Ketorolac (d) Rofecoxib 92. Which of the following NSAIDs has been approved for use in children (a) Indomethacin (b) Ibuprofen (c) Ketorolac (d) Piroxicam 93. Among NSAIDs aspirin is unique because it (a) Irreversibly inhibits its target enzyme (b) Reduces the risk of colon cancer (c) Reduces fever (d) Selectively inhibits COX2 enzyme 94. The antidote of choice in paracetamol poisoning is (a) Flumazenil (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) Nacetylcysteine (d) Methylene Blue 95. Prostaglandin useful for the prevention of duodenal ulcer is (a) Dinoprost (b) Misoprostol (c) Alprostadil (d) Carboprost 96. Prostaglandin inhibiting action of aspirin is useful in the treatment of all of the following conditions, EXCEPT (a) Analgesia and antipyresis (b) Closure of ductus arteriosus (c) Uricosuria (d) Anti-inflammatory and anti-platelet aggregation 97. Which of the following drugs inhibit an enzyme in the prostaglandin synthesis (a) Aminocaproic acid (b) Aspirin (c) Aprotinin (d) Alteplase 98. Misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue is useful as (a) Uterine relaxant (b) Antiulcer (c) Bronchodilator (d) Vasodilator 99. Drug commonly causing analgesic nephropathy is (a) Aspirin (b) Ibuprofen (c) Phenacetin (d) Phenylbutazone 100. Which one of the following is aspirin (a) Methyl salicylate (b) Paraaminobenzoic acid (c) Paraaminosalicylic acid (d) Acetyl salicylic acid 101. True about COX2 are all EXCEPT (a) It is constitutionally expressed on some cell surfaces (b) Activation of COX2 leads to ulcer protective effect on gastric mucosa (c) Induced at the site of inflammation (d) It is utilized in generation of eicosanoids with a ring structure 102. Which of the following is non-opioid analgesic and does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis (a) Nefopam (b) Tenoxicam (c) Ketorolac (d) Piroxicam 103. All are true about Reye’s Syndrome Except (a) Hepatic encephalopathy (b) Seen with ampicillin therapy (c) Fever and rash (d) Viral associated 104. Ibuprofen acts on (a) Lipoxygenase pathway (b) Cyclooxygenase pathway (c) Kinin system (d) Serotonin system 105. Which of the following prostaglandin analogues is used in glaucoma (a) Misoprostol (b) Latanoprost (c) Enprostil (d) Rioprostil 106. Cycloxygenase enzyme is not inhibited by (a) Aspirin (b) Warfarin (c) Phenylbutazone (d) Diclofenac 107. Which prostaglandin helps in cervical ripening (a) PGI2 (b) PGF2 (c) PGE2 (d) PGD2 108. Rofecoxib was withdrawn due to (a) Ischemic heart disease (b) Renal complication (c) Liver adenoma (d) Gastric ulcer 109. Which of the following statements is true of ketorolac (a) Has potent anti-inflammatory activity (b) Its analgesic efficacy is equal to morphine in postoperative pain (c) Is used as preanaesthetic analgesic (d) It interacts with opioid receptor 110. Use of aspirin in children with viral disease is associated with (a) Metabolic acidosis (b) Reye’s syndrome (c) Renal tubular acidosis (d) Fixed drug eruption Rheumatoid Arthritis and Gout 111. Which of the following drugs cause oligospermia (a) Leflunomide (b) Penicillamine (c) Methotrexate (d) Sulfasalazine 112. Allopurinol prevents conversion of (a) Hypoxanthine to xanthine (b) Xanthine to hypoxanthine (c) Hypoxanthine to I.M.P. (d) Xanthine to uronic acid 113. Which of the following disease modifying antirheumatoid drugs is a prodrug (a) Etanercept (b) Nimesulide (c) Sulfasalazine (d) Colchicine 114. All of the following drugs can produce hyperuricemia except (a) Ethambutol (b) Pyrazinamide (c) Sulfinpyrazone (d) Hydrochlorothiazide 115. Gout is an example of (a) Metabolic acidosis (b) Metabolic disorder (c) Genetic disorder (d) None of the above 116. The cause of gout is (a) Over synthesis of uric acid (b) Over synthesis of insulin (c) Saturation of uric acid in blood (d) Both A and C 117. Agent which increase elimination of uric acid via urine is called as (a) Uricosouric agents (b) Purine synthesis inhibitor (c) Leukocyte inhibitor (d) Antidiuretic 118. Colchicine MOA is (a) Inhibition of Leukocyte migration (b) Inhibition of Phagocytosis (c) Inhibition of Xanthine oxidase (d) Both A and B 119. Osteoarthritis is result of (a) Physical work load (b) Autoimmune disorder (c) Genetic disorder (d) Metabolic disorder 120. Rheumatic Arthritis cause is (a) Autoimmune disorders (b) Injury (c) Genetics (d) None of the above 121. Which of the following disease modifying anti-rheumatoid drugs is a prodrug (a) Etanercept (b) Nimesulide (c) Sulfasalazine (d) Colchicine 122. All of the following drugs can produce hyperuricemia except (a) Ethambutol (b) Pyrazinamide (c) Sulfinpyrazone (d) Hydrochlorothiazide 123. Drug of choice for acute gout is (a) Colchicine (b) Indomethacin (c) Allopurinol (d) Dexamethasone 124. Most common dose limiting adverse effect of colchicine is (a) Sedation (b) Kidney damage (c) Diarrhea (d) Muscle paralysis 125. Which of the following drugs is useful in chronic gout but is not a uricosuric agent (a) Probenecid (b) Phenylbutazone (c) Sulfinpyrazone (d) Allopurinol 126. Allopurinol is useful in all of the following conditions EXCEPT (a) Cancer chemotherapy induced hyperuricemia (b) Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricemia (c) Acute gouty arthritis (d) Kala –azar 127. Rasburicase is a newer drug used in gout. It act by (a) Decreasing urate synthesis (b) Increasing urate oxidation (c) Decreasing intestinal absorption of uric acid (d) Increasing renal excretion of uric acid 128. A drug that is effective for rheumatoid arthritis but is not appropriate for osteoarthritis is (a) Acetaminophen (b) Infliximab (c) Keterolac (d) Rofecoxib 129. Which of the following is a DMARD (a) Desferrioxamine (b) Penicillamine (c) Succimer (d) Dimercaprol 130. Which of the following increases uric acid excretion (a) Allopurinol (b) Aspirin (c) Colchicine (d) Probenecid 131. Which of the following drugs is useful in acute attack of gout (a) Furosemide (b) Sulfinpyrazone (c) Allopurinol (d) Piroxicam 132. Allopurinol potentiates the action of (a) Corticosteroids (b) Probenecid (c) 6-Mercaptopurine (d) Ampicillin 133. Probenecid interacts with (a) Streptomycin (b) Ampicillin (c) Vancomycin (d) Erythromycin 134. Drug useful for gout (a) Pyrazinamide (b) Rifampicin (c) Allopurinol (d) Naloxone 135. Loading dose of leflunomide in rheumatoid arthritis is (a) 20 mg (b) 10 mg (c) 100 mg (d) 400 mg 136. Leflunomide is used in the treatment of (a) Rheumatoid arthritis (b) Dermatomyositis (c) Bony metastasis (d) Postmenopausal osteoporosis 137. Which of the following disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) is the drug of first choice (a) Methotrexate (b) Gold compounds (c) Dpenicillamine (d) Anakinra Miscellaneous 138. Most common cause of Mobius syndrome is use of which of the following drug in pregnancy (a) Misoprostol (b) Thalidomide (c) Methotrexate (d) Dinoprostone 139. Which of the following agent is not used for treatment of erectile dysfunction (a) PGE2 (b) Vardenafil (c) Phenylephrine (d) Alprostadil 140. Which of the following drugs has covalent interaction with its target (a) Aspirin (b) Penicillin (c) Nitric oxide (d) Bosentan 141. Which of the following is used to treat severe pulmonary hypertension (a) Angiotensin I (b) Omapatrilat (c) Bosentan (d) Endothelin 142. The primary endogenous substrate for nitric oxide synthase (NOS) is (a) Citrulline (b) Arginine (c) Heme (d) Methionine 143. Which of the following NSAID has good tissue penetrability with concentration in synovial fluid (a) Ketorolac (b) Diclofenac sodium (c) Sulindac (d) Piroxicam 144. Best drug for chronic gout in patient with renal impairment is (a) Naproxen (b) Probenecid (c) Allopurinol (d) Sulfinpyrazone 145. Alprostadil is not used for (a) Erectile dysfunction (b) Pulmonary hypertension (c) Patent ductus arteriosus (d) Critical limb ischemia 146. Ergometrine is not used for initiation of labour because (a) Slow onset of action (b) Foetal hypoxia (c) Increases blood pressure (d) Act on D2 receptors to cause vomiting 147. NSAID given in once daily dose is (a) Naproxen (b) Ketoralac (c) Piroxicam (d) Paracetamol 148. Most commonly used drug for prophylaxis of migraine is (a) Sumatriptan (b) Propranolol (c) Valproate (d) Flunarizine MORE PHARMACOLOGY MCQS

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