Social Pharmacy MCQs based on D. Pharma Exit Exam 1st Year

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Welcome to Pharmacy India, your trusted source for top-tier pharmaceutical education resources! 🌟 Unlock a deeper understanding of Social Pharmacy with our comprehensive collection of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) tailored for the D. Pharma Exit Exam 1st Year. Dive into a wealth of insights, meticulously designed to enhance your exam preparation and ensure success in this dynamic field.

CHAPTER 1 – INTRODUCTION TO SOCIAL PHARMACY

1. WHO defined health as a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity in:

(a) 1948

(b) 1996

(c) 1947

(d) 1950

2. National Health Program was declared by the Indian Government in:

(a) 1948

(b) 1983

(c) 1947

(d) 1995

3. is defined as a state of balance between the individual and the surrounding world, including the environment.

(a) Social health

(b) Mental health

(c) Physical health

(d) Spiritual health

4. Social health as defined is a … of an individual’s inter-personalities and the extent of involvement with the community.

(a) Amount and significance

(b) Size and value

(c) Extent and excellence

 (d) Quantity and quality

5. National Health Programme was introduced to provide proper treatment measures in areas.

(a) Urban and sub-urban

(b) Sub rural and sub-urban

(c) Rural and sub-rural 

(d) Rural and urban

6. The WHO identified……… determinants of health.

(a) 6

(b) 10

 (c) 12

(d) 4.

7. ……… is a connecting link between physiology and psychology

(a) Physical health

(b) Social health

(c) Mental health

 (d) Spiritual health

8………. often result due to low education levels.

(a) Lower self-confidence

(b) More stress

(c) Poor health

(d) All of these

9. ……… is the number of deaths per 1000 population per year in a given community.

(a) Mortality rate

(b) Total death rate

(c) Crude death rate

(d) Specific death rate

10. ……… and water quality are the physical factors in the natural environment which put their impact on health.

(a) Light

(b) Air

(c) Humidity

(d) Temperature

11. Child mortality rate is the number of deaths of……… old children in a given year per 1000 children of the same age group at the midpoint of the same year.

(a) 1-4 years

(b) 2-6 years

(c) 4-10 years

(d) 0-1 year

12. ……. indicators are not directly used for measuring the health status, but interpret the indicators of healthcare.

(a) Socio-economic

(b) Nutritional status

(c) Health policy

(d) Environment

13. ………. are used for improving the mortality data so that the health status of a population be property described.

(a) Mortality indicators

(b) Healthcare delivery

(c) Morbidity indicators

d) Life expectancy

14. ………… is the simplest indicator used for estimating the burden of disease in a community.

(a) Life expectancy

(b) Maternal mortality rate

(c) Proportional mortality rate

(d) Disease-specific mortality

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CHAPTER 2 – PREVENTIVE HEALTHCARE – ROLE OF PHARMACIST

15. Demography is the scientific study of human population, including:

(a) Change in the population size

(b) Population distribution in spaces

(c) Population composition

(d) All of these

16. Demographic processes that regularly work within a population to determine its size, composition, and distribution are:

(a) Social mobility

(b) Mortality

(c) Fertility

(d) All of these

17. ………. stage of demographic cycle is also known as high stationary stage.

(a) Third

(b) Second

(c) First

(d) Fourth

18. Fifth stage of demographic cycle is also known as:

(a) Late expanding stage

(b) High stationary state

(c) Low stationary state

(d) Declining stage.

19. In the ………… stage, declining death and constant birth rates are the characteristic Features of this stage.

(a) Early expanding

(b) Late expanding

(c) Low stationary

(d) High stationary

20. Low birth and low death rates are the characteristic features of ……. stage.

(a) Fifth

(b) Fourth

(c) Third

(d) Second

21. In the late expanding stage, further declining death and………….. are the characteristic features.

(a) Declining death

(b) Constant birth rates

(c) Falling birth rates

(d) High death rates

22. An expert committee of the WHO defined family planning in:

 (a) 1970

(b) 1976

(c) 1971

(d) 1980

23. …………… is the oldest method of voluntary fertility control, in which the male withdraws before ejaculation.

(a) Abstinence

(b) Coitus interruptus  

(c) Cervical mucus method

(d) Vasectomy

24. Which of the following methods does not come under behavioural methods of contraception?

(a) Abstinence

(b) Coitus interruptus

(c) Calendar method

(d) Basal body temperature method

25. In. ……… method, the physiological symptoms develop when the basal temperature rises.

(a) Symptothermic

(b) Cervical mucus

(c) Basal body temperature

(d) Safe period

26. ……………..the commonly used spermicides.

(a) Vaginal contraceptive films

(b) Contraceptive jellies

(c) Contraceptive suppositories

(d) Surface active agents

27. …………… type of immunity is present in an individual since birth, and is affected by the genetic and molecular structure of the genes.

(a) Specific

(b) Innate  

(c) Acquired

(d) Adaptive

28. …………. an immunity is also known as acquired immunity.

 (a) Adaptive

(b) Neutral

(c) Passive

(d) Active

29. ……… immunity is the resistance that an individual acquires during life.

(a) Non-specific

(b) Active

(c) Passive

(d) Specific

30. ………type of immunity is the resistance acquired or developed by an individual after effective contact with an antigen.

(a) Specific

(b) Non-specific

(c) Active

(d) Passive

31. …………… is the physical and chemical barrier for specific immunity.

(a) Lymphocytes

(b) Skin

(c) Mucosal epithelia

(d) Antimicrobial chemicals

32. ……………type of immunity is the result of vaccination.

(a) Specific

(b) Non-specific

(c) Passive

(d) Artificial active

33. ……………… is an example of toxoids which is used as an immunising agent.

(a) Tetanus

(b) Tetanus antitoxin

 (c) Antitoxin

(d) Antivenins

34. type of immunity is seen in foetus in which the antibodies are transferred from the mother either via placenta or milk.

(a) Artificial passive

(b) Natural passive  

(c) Artificial active:

(d) Natural active

35. …………is an example of animal immune sera that is used as an immunising agent.

(a) Antitoxin

(b) Tetanus

(c) Mixed toxold DT

(d) Mixed toxoid DTP

36. ………. vaccines are prepared by using a non-virulent microorganism 22

 (a) Monke

(b) Guinea pig

(c) Cow

(d) Rabbit

37. The term vaccine has been derived from the Latin word vacca which means. that retains its antigenicity.

(a) Inactivated-killed

(b) Live attenuated  

(c) Bacterial

(d) Viral

38. Which of the following is the main agent for air pollution?

(a) CO₂

(b) SO2

(c) H₂S

(d) Carbon monoxide

39. Sound intensity is measured is terms of:

(a) Hertz

(b) Decibels.

(c) Dyne

(d) Microbar

40. ……………… should be quickly removed and disposed off as it undergoes rapid fermentation on storage.

(a) Waste

(b) Rubbish

(c) Ash

(d) Garbage  

41. …………..is the best method of disposing the highly infectious hospital and nursing home  refuse.

(a) Incineration

(b) Dumping

 (c) Composting

(d) Burning

42. …………….one of the most practical and effective methods of disposing refuse in rural areas.

(a) Manure pits

(c) Composting

(d) Burning

(d) Dumping

43. Which of the following is found in serum and on lymphologtes?

(a) IgM

(b) IgA

(c) Igl

(d) IgE

44. All the workers exposed to continuous noise louder than ………….. require hearing protection.

(a) 100 Hz

(b) 150 Hz

 (c) 250 Hz

 (d) 50 Hz

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CHAPTER 3 – NUTRITION AND HEALTH

45. ………. is not a fat-soluble vitamin.

(a) Vitamin K

(b) Vitamin E

(c) Vitamin A

(d) Vitamin C

46. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

(a) Vitamin E

(b) Vitamin B

(c) Vitamin D

(d) Vitamin K

47. Milk, yoghurt, cheese, small fish with bones and beans are the natural sources of…………

(a) Calcium

(b) Sodium

(c) Magnesium

(a) Sodium

48. ……………. is needed for vitamin B activation, muscle relaxation and blood clotting.

(a) sodium

(c) Calcium

(b) Magnesium

(d) Potassium

49. ……….. is the most commonly occurring extracellular cation.

(a) Magnesium

(b) Calcium

(c) Sodium

(d) Potassium

50. ……… maintains a healthy muscular system and acts as an antioxidant.

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin B3

(c) Vitamin E

(d) Vitamin C

51. …… is responsible for the formation of RBCs.

(a) Vitamin B3

(b) Vitamin B5

(c) Vitamin B₂

(d) Vitamin B12

52. ………. is essential for muscle contraction, proper heart function and transmission of nerve signals.

 (a) Potassium 

(b) Magnesium

(c) Calcium

(d) Zinc

53. ……… is a condition of decreased bone mineral density which occurs when an individual receives inadequate calcium for a long period.

(a) Rickets

(b) Osteopenia 

(c) Osteonecrosis

(d) Paget’s disease

54. The symptoms of ……… deficiency are muscle cramping, constipation, bloating or abdominal pain caused by intestinal paralysis.

(a) Magnesium

(b) Zinc

(c) Iron

(d) Potassium

55. Severe…….. deficiency causes diarrhea, hair loss, impotence and can also prolong the wound healing process.

(a) Calcium

(b) Potassium

(c) Zinc

(d) Iron

56. ……….. is a condition affecting individuals with adequate calorie intake but a relative protein deficiency and who are catabolic with trauma, infection or burns.

(a) Marasmus

(b) Anaemia

(c) Kwashiorkor

(d) Osteoporosis

57. Vitamin E is also known as:

(a) Tocopherols

(b) Calciferol

(c) Phylloquinone

(d) Retinol

58. Folic acid is the second name of:

(a) Vitamin B3

(b) Vitamin B9

(c) Vitamin B7

(d) Vitamin B5

59. A balanced diet consists of……… nutrients.

(a) Seven

(b) Five

(c) Six

(d) Four

60. Which of the following nutrients provide energy?

(a) Vitamins

(b) Carbohydrates 

(c) Water

(d) Minerals

61. Which of the following nutrients promote growth and development?

(a) Lipids

(b) Proteins

(c) Minerals

(d) All of these

62. foods have a high content of proteins, vitamins, and minerals.

(a) Body building

(b) Anabolic

(c) Protective

(d) Energy yielding

63. carbohydrate is required by the moderately active females.

(a) 1500-2000 kcal/day

(b) 2500-3000 kcal/day

(c) 2500-2800 kcal/day

(d) 1500-2500 kcal/day

64. foods provide energy and do not have a high content of calories, provided that extra fat or sugar are not added.

(a) Sugar

(b) Proteins

(c) Starch

(d) Fats

65. Semi-starvation condition is termed as:

(a) Ricket

(b) Maramus

(c) Xerophthalmia

(d) Pellagra

66. ………. are required for body growth, repair, and healing.

(a) Proteins

(b) Fats

(c) Starch

(d) Vitamins

67. help in keeping bowels working regularly and in intestinal peristalsis movement.

(a) Fibres 

(b) Water

(c) Proteins

(d) Minerals

68. Lack of water results in:

(a) Mal functions of heart

(c) Kidney failure

(b) High blood pressure

(d) All of these

69. ………. is required for growth and fertility.

(a) lodine

(b) Selenium

(c) Zinc

(d) Fluoride

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CHAPTER 4 – INTRODUCTION TO MICROBIOLOGY AND COMMON MICROORGANISMS

70. ……….is the father of Modern Microbiology

(a) Antoni van Leeuwenhoek

(b) Louis Pasteur

(c) Charles Loraine

(d) Fanny Hesse

71. are also named as cyanobacteria.

(a) Virus

(b) Fungi

(c) Algae

(d) Bacteria

72. ……….. Fungi obtain food as ……. by absorbing organic materials from their surrounding environment.

(a) Symbionts

(b) Parasites

(c) Decomposers

(d) Mycelium

73. Study of the distribution and determinants of health states in specified populations, and application of this study to control health problems, is termed:

(a) Epidemiology

(b) Microbiology

(c) Biology

(d) Observational study

74. Communicable diseases are also known as:

(a) Acute diseases

(b) Genetic diseases

(c) Infectious diseases 

(d) Chronic diseases

75. Which one is a bacterial disease?

(a) Tuberculosis

(b) Ring worm

(c) Polio

(d) Malaria

76. In ……… transmission, transfer of disease-causing microbes occurs by infected insects or other animals.

(a) Vector borne

(b) Air-borne

(c) Faecal-oral

(d) Droplet

77. In method, normal healthy person is kept isolated till the incubation period of disease is over.

(a) Investigation

(b) Quarantine 

(c) Diagnosis

(d) Disinfection

78. The causative agent of chicken pox is ……… virus.

(a) Corynebacterium

(b) Varicella-zoster

(c) Bordetella pertussis

(d) RNA paramyxo

79. ……….is a viral infection in which extremely itchy blisters develop on the entire body.

(a) Diphtheria

(b) Measles

(c) Influenza

(d) Chicken pox

80. In measles, the virus gets transmitted by and it enters the human body via respiratory tract.

(a) Droplet contact

(b) Indirect contact

(c) Faecal oral transmission

(d) Vector borne transmission

81. The causative agent of measles is:

(a) Salmonella typhimurium

(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(c) Vibrio cholerae

(d) RNA paramyxovirus

82. In later phase of measles……… appear in the mucous membrane of the buccal cavity.

(a) Red papules

(b) Maculopapular rash

(c) Koplik’s spots

(d) Eruptions

83. Apart from droplet infection, diphtheria also gets transmitted by: contact

(a) Vector

(b) Direct physical

(c) Faecal oral route

(d) Fomites

84. Influenza is an infectious disease caused by………. virus belonging to Orthomyxoviridaefamily,

(a) Radioactive

(b) RNA

(c) Pseudomonas

(d) Rota

85. Which type of influenza virus is the main cause of epidemics and pandemics?

(a) Influenza B

(b) influenza C

(c) Influenza A

(d) Influenza D

86. Diphtheria can be prevented by immunisation with…….., which should be given to a child on reaching the age of 6,10 and 14 months.

(a) DPT vaccine

(b) V. cholera vaccine

(c) BCG vaccine

(d) Ty21a vaccine

87. The causative agent of whooping cough is a gram-negative pleomorphic bacillus, ……….

(a) Bordetella pertussis 

(b) Salmonella typhimurium

(c) Varicella

(d) Herpes simplex

88. ……… is a highly infectious disease characterized by inflammation in the lungs and other body parts, as the bacteria attack.

(a) Whooping cough

(b) Tuberculosis

(c) Common cold

(d) Varicella

89. Which antibiotic is used for treating whooping cough?

(a) Penicillin

(b) Tetracycline

(c) Erythromycin

(d) Chloramphenicol

90. E. coli infection is an example of:

(a) Parasitic infection

(b) Viral infection

(c) Bacterial infection

(d) Fungal infection

91. Which one is a preventive measure for tuberculosis?

(a) Mantoux test

(b) BCG vaccine

(c) Chemoprophylaxis

(d) All of these

92. Hepatitis virus mainly transmits by:

(a) Sexual transmission

(b) Mother to foetus

(c) Blood and blood products

(d) Faecal oral route

93. Amoebiasis is caused by:

(a) Clostridium botulinum

(b) Entamoeba histolytic

(c) Salmonella enteritis

(d) Giardia lamblia

94. Food poisoning in infants and children is commonly caused by………… which transmit from one person to another by faecal contamination of food.

(a) RNA virus

(b) Polio virus

(c) Norovirus

(d) Rota virus

95. The most common contamination source for cholera is of an infected person, contaminates the water and food.

(a) Blood

(b) Faeces

(c) Saliva

(d) Skin

96. The causative agent for typhoid is a gram-negative short bacillus, ………

(a) Salmonella enteritis

(b) Campylobacter enteritis

(c) Shigella enteritis

(d) Cyrptosporidium

97. Hookworm larvae transmit through the of a person who comes in contact with contaminated human faeces.

(a) Faeces

(b) Saliva

(c) Skin

(d) Blood

98. Typhold is transmitted by contaminated:

(a) Blood

(b) Food and water

(c) Faeces

(d) Person

99. Hookworm mainly affects the lungs, skin and…..

(a) Pancreas

(b) Small intestine

(c) Large intestine

(d) Stomach

100. The species of plasmodium responsible for malaria in human beings are:

(a) P. falciparum and P. vivax

(b) P. knowlesi and P. vivax

(c) P faliciparum and P. malariae

(d) P. facliparum and P semiavole

101. Filariasis gets transmitted when bitten by:

(a) Culex

(b) Anopheles

(c) Yellow fever

(d) Aedes

102. The causative agent of filariasis is:

(a) Wuchereria bancrofti

(b) Brugia malayi

(c) Brugia timori

(d) All of these

103. ………… is a common symptom of malarial infection due to the attack of the Plasmodium parasite on the RBCs.

(a) Anaemia

(b) Kidney failure

(c) Higher fiver

(d) Shaking chills

104. ……….. is a filarial parasite of humans transmitted by the deer fly.

(a) Loa loa

(b) Brugia timori

(c) Wuchereria bancrofti

(d) Brugia malayi

10. Filariasis transmits from one person to another by:

(a) Reptiles:

(b) Mosquito bites

(c) House flies

(d) Spores

106. ………. is a muscular disease in which the muscles become stiff.

(a) Leporsy

(b) AIDS

(c) Tetanus

(d) Gonorrhoea

107. The causative agent of tetanus is……… which releases an exotoxin.

(a) Treponema pallidum

(b) Mycobacterium leprae

(c) Molluscum contagiosum

(d) Clostridium tetanus

108. is a contagious disease characterised by painful white patches on the dermis and is capable of causing necrosis of nerves and muscles.

(a) Scabies

(b) Leprosy

(c) Psoriasis

(d) Trachoma

109. The causative agent of leprosy is:

(a) Treponema pallidum

(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(c) Plasmodium falciparum

(d) Mycobacterium leprae

110. The causative agent of syphilis is:

(a) Treponema pallidum

(b) Human Papillome Virus

(c) Mallusecum contagiosm

(d) Trichomoniasis

111. …… most commonly affects the urogenital tract.

 (a) Syphillis

(b) AIDS

(c) Gonorrhea

(d) Scabies

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CHAPTER 5 – INTRODUCTION TO HEALTH SYSTEMS AND ALL ONGOING NATIONAL HEALTH PROGRAM

112. ………. is not included in the Central Level Health System.

(a) Health and Family Welfare Service

(b) Central Council of Health

(c) Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

(d) All of the above

113. Which department uses research work to find the solutions to the problems of medical field?

(a) Health Research Department

(b) Family Welfare Department

(c) Indian System of Medicine and Homeopathy Department

(d) Health Department

114. Which of the following is the administrative body which constitutes 5 panchayat members?

(a) Gram Panchayat

(b) Gram Sabha.

(c) Nyaya Panchayat.

(d) None of these

115. Which of the following is not a feature of National Tuberculosis Control Programme (NTCP)?

(a) Patient wise boxes

(b) District Tuberculosis Control Society

(c) Modular training

(d) To decrease the death rate of children

116. National Tuberculosis Program (NTP) was launched in the year:

(a) 1962

(b) 1982

(c) 1955

(d) 1983

117. Pulse Polio Immunisation (PPI) was launched in India in the year:

(a) 1995

(b) 1983

(c) 1997

(d) 1956

118. National Aids Control Programme was launched in India in the year.

(a) 1987

(b) 1978

(c) 1978

(d) 1951

119. The National Programme for Control of Blindness was launched as a 100% Centrally Sponsored Programme in the year:

(a) 1982

(b) 1982

(c) 1978

(d) 1976

120. The National Mental Health Program (NMHP) was launched to ensure Mental Health Care Services for all in the year:

(a) 2001

(b) 1987

(c) 1982

(d) 1975

121. In ……… malarial cases are detected by domiciliary visits.

(a) Mass blood survey

(b) Passive case detection

(c) Data analysis

(d) Active case detection

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122. ………. activities are covered by disaster management before, during and after a disaster.

(a) Mitigation

(b) Emergency Response

(c) Reconstruction and rehabilitation

(d) All of these

123. The full form of NDRF is:

(a) National Disaster Response Force

(b) Normal Disaster Reconstruction Fund

(c) National Disaster Construction Fund

(d) None of these

124. The full form of SDRF is:

(a) Stare Disaster Response Fund

(b) State Disaster Response Fund

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

125. The wind speed of Tornadoes is up to:

(a) 440 km/sec

(b) 480 km/sec

(c) 600 km/sec

(d) 560km/sec

126. Intensity of earthquake is measured by……… scale.

(a) Richter

(b) Vernier

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

127. Flood can be controlled by:

(a) Construction of dams

(b) Afforestation

(c) Deforestation

(d) Both (a) and (b)

128. Which of the following is the effect of cyclone?

(a) Strong winds

(b) Tornadoes

(c) Rainfall and flooding

(d) All of these

129. Full form of NAPERT is:

(a) National Pharmacy Emergency Response Team

(b) National Power Emergency Response Task

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

130. Full form of ERT is:

(a) Emergency Response Team

(b) Emergency Resettlement Task

(c) Emergency Reconstruction Task

(d) All of these

131. Which of the following is key stage of Disaster management?

(a) Prevention

(b) Preparedness

(c) Reaction

(d) All of these

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CHAPTER 6 – PHARMACOECONOMICS

132. ……….. is the part of health economics that deals with the evaluation of the costs and consequences of therapeutic decision making.

(a) Cost of drug

(b) Pharmacoeconomics

(c) Utility unit

(d) Cost effective analysis

133. The main reason for using ……… is to define the monetary value of saving a human life.

(a) Cost benefit Analysis (CBA)

(b) CEA

(c) CỦA

(d) CMA

134. ………..is a legal agreement between a person or group of persons and a company or any government programme,

(a) Health insurance policy

(b) Health economics

(c) Health spending

(d) Pharmacoeconomics

135. .………..is the payment made by the insured person for certain services/visits.

(a) Premium

(b) Deductible

(c) Broad coverage

(d) Co-payment

136. Health spending includes………..

(a) Medical expenses

(b) Non-medical expenses

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of these

137. ………… is the amount the policy holder or his/her sponsor (employer) plans to pay monthly for purchasing the health insurance.

(a) Premium

(b) Co-payment

(c) Coinsurance

(d) Deductible

138. ………. covers the expenses of case given by the Physician, except any surgical operation.

(a) Hospital insurance

(b) Physician expenses insurance

(c) Surgical operation expense insurance

(d) Dental insurance

139. Out-of-pocket costs include:

(a) Deductibles

(b) Co-insurance

(c) Co-payment

(d) All of these

140. ……… is an insured who undergoes treatment after getting admitted in a hospital. patient

(a) in patient

(b) Out

(c) Day patient

(d) House patient

141. Moral hazard by health insurance companies can result in

(a) Community rating

(b) Adverse selection

(c) Abuse of health insurance

(d) Risk pooling

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