GPAT 2023 Shift-I Previous Year Question Paper

1. Which of the following terms is used to describe the “Partial or complete separation of the top or body crowns of a tablet from the main body of the tablet”

(a) Lamination

(b) Capping

(c) Picking

(d) Mottling

2. The law of relative lowering of vapour pressure was given by

(a) Raoult

(b) Ostwald

(c) Henry

(d) Van’t Hoff

3. Dipole-dipole weak interactions are also called as

(a) London forces

(b) Debye interactions

(c) Electrovalent forces

(d) Keesom forces

4. Invert sugar is a product obtained by the hydrolysis of

(a) Maltose

(b) Sucrose

(c) Lactose

(d) Dextrin

5. The time taken at a fixed temperature or the radiation dose required to achieve a 90% reduction in viable bacterial cells is called

(a) F value

(b) Z value

(c) D value

(d) T value

6. In pharmacokinetic models, the term “Compartment” means

(a) Blood

(b) Individual organ

(c) Extracellular fluid

(d) Hypothetical pool of tissue

7. The most efficient heat exchange between the particles and flowing air occurs in the

(a) Tray dryer

(b) Vacuum Dryer

(c) Fluidized bed dryer

(d) Rotary dryer

8. The drug price control order (DPCO) is an order issued by the Government under the enables it to fix the prices of some essential bulk and their formulations which

(a) Essential Commodities Act

(b) Essential Commodities Amendment

(c) Essential Commodities Accessories

(d) Ethical Commodities Act

9. According to IP and BP very fine powder is one in which

(a) All particles pass through 120# sieve

(b) 90% particles pass through 350# sieve

(c) All particles pass through 350# sieve

(d) 90% particles are of size < 10m

10. Which of the following pharmaceutical solvent has the highest dielectric constant, at 25 degree C

(a) Glycerin

(b) Ethanol

(c) Acetone

(d) Phenol

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11. Kozeny Carmen equation is used to determine the

(a) Surface area of the powder

(b) Viscosity of a liquid

(c) Surface tension of a liquid

(d) Density of a liquid

12. Which of the following emulsifiers has the highest HLB value

(a) Span 80

(b) Acacia

(c) Tween 80

(d) Sodium lauryl sulfate

13. Which of the following substances are not used as humectants in emulsions

(a) Propylene glycol

(b) Sorbitol

(c) Tocopherol

(d) Glycerol

14. Under which of the following conditions in-vitro-in-vivo correlation for a drug fails

(a) When the drug is highly soluble

(b) When the drug’s absorption takes place by a complex process

(c) When the dissolution medium is adequately simulated

(d) When the drug is highly permeable but poorly soluble

15. A crystalline powder that contains water of crystallization or hydration this water can be liberated either during manipulations or an exposure to a low – humidity environ ment — then the powder will become sticky and pasty, or it may even liquefy. Such a powder is called

(a) Eutectic

(b) Hygroscopic

(c) Deliquescent

(d) Efflorescent

16. The formula to calculate liquid pressure is

(a) P = mgh

(b) P = wgh

(c) P = ρgh

(d) P = Fgh

17. Out of the following solvents which one is not a polar solvent

(a) Ethanol

(b) Methanol

(c) Hexane

(d) Water

18. Which of the following molecular properties can be determined by Thermogravimetric Analysis

(a) Solubility

(b) Hygroscopicity     

(c) Colour stability     

(d) Hydrolysis

19. Which of the following levels of IVIVC is represented by “the relationship between one dissolution time point (e.g. t 50%) and one mean pharmacokinetic parameter, such as AUC, Tmax or Cmax”

(a) Level A

(b) Level B

(c) Level C

(d) Level D

20. Which of the following USP Glass Types is NOT SUITABLE for parental packaging

(a)Type I

(b) Type II

(c) Type III

(d) Type IV

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21. The difference in velocity between two planes of liquids separated/infinitesimal distance is called

(a) Rate of shear         

(b) Rate of flow

(c) Rate of force

(d) Shearing stress

22. The required amount of adjusting substance required to make a hypotonic solution, isotonic is given by the (Where, W = Adjusting substance, a = Freezing point depression of unadjusted solution and b = Freezing point depression of water)

(a) W= a-0.52/b

(b) W= 0.52-a/b

(c) W= 0.52-b/a

(d) W= b-0.52/a

23. Clear, sweetened hydroalcoholic solutions intended for oral use, usually flavoured to en hance their palatability are called

(a) Aromatic waters

(b) Elixirs

(c) Syrups

(d) Tinctures

24. Which of the following Climatic Zones (As per WHO Criteria) refers to “Hot and Humid climate”

(a) Zone I

(b) Zone II

(c) Zone III

(d) Zone IV

25. Which of the following is the common chemical name for Propellant 11

(a) Trichloromonofluoromethane

(b) Dichlorodifluoromethane

(c) Dichlorotetrafluoroethane

(d) Chloropentafluoroethane

26. A component of film-coating solution to make film more pliable, enhance spread over tablets, beads and granules is called

(a) Adsorbent

(b) Humectant

(c) Stiffening agent

(d) Plasticizer

27. Match the following List I with List II with respect to most specific Activity / Property in formulation of disperse system

LIST (FORMULATION INGREDIENT)	LIST ( ACTIVITY/ PROPERTY)
1. Salts of d-glucuronic acid polypeptides and amino acids	[P] Are pseudoplastic and plastic in nature
2. Surfactants, both ionic and nonionic	[Q] Form a multimolecular film around the dispersed droplets of oil in an o/w emulsion
3. Magnesium aluminium silicate	[R] Emulsifier belonging to the class of solid particles form W/O emulsion
4. Structured vehicles	[S] Emulsifier belonging to the class of solid particles and form O/W emulsion
	[T] Have been used to bring about flocculation of suspended particles

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(a) 1-[Q], 2-[T], 3-[S], 4-[P] (b) 1-[T], 2-[S], 3-[Q], 4-[P]

(c) 1-[T], 2-[S], 3-[R], 4-[P] (d) 1-[S], 2-[R], 3-[Q], 4-[P]

28. What is the percentage of alcohol in a mixture obtained by mixing 5 L of 25%. 3 L of 40% and 2 L of 15% alcohol

(a) 27.5% v/v

(b) 30.5% v/v

(c) 25.5% v/v

(d) 26.5% v/v

29. For disguising the astringent and metallic taste of iron salts in children’s mixture, the following flavoring agent in used

(a) Orange syrup and compound orange syrup

(b) Lemon syrup

(c) Liquorice liquid extract

(d) Aromatic water

30. A tablet excipient, whose function is to ensure that tablet formulation and ejection can occur with low friction between the solid and the die wall, is called

(a) Glidant

(b) Lubricant

(c) Anti-adhesive

(d) Binder

31. Clathrates crystallize in the form of

(a) Channel type structure

(b) Tetragonal type structure

(c) Cubic type lattice

(d) Cage like lattice

32. Which of the following ointment bases is an “Absorption base”

(a) Yellow ointment, USP

(b) Hydrophilic petrolatum USP

(c) Hydrophilic ointment USP

(d) PEG ointment NF

33. Which of the following surfactants is an ANIONIC surfactant

(a) Lecithin

(b) Sorbitan esters

(c) Benzalkonium chloride

(d) Soaps

34. Which of the following formulations are “Pharmaceutically equivalent” Match List I with List II

INGREDIENT		FUNCTION		TABLET A	TABLET B	TABLET C	TABLET D
P	Acetaminophen	I	Drug	300mg	—	300mg	300mg
Q	Aspirin	II	Drug	—	300mg	—	—
R	Lactose	III	Filler	100mg	100mg	—	100mg
S	Avicel	IV	Filler	—	—	100mg	—
	Starch		Disintegrant	50mg	50mg	—	50mg
	Avicel		Disintegrant	—	—	50mg	—
	Mag stearate		Lubricant	2mg	2mg	2mg	2mg
	Gelatin		Binder	10mg	10mg	10mg	10mg

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(a) P and Q

(b) Q and R

(c) P and R

(d) Q and S

35. What is the approximate amount of Powder (in mg) that can be filled in empty gelatin capsules of size 00

(a) 1040 mg

(b) 650 mg

(c) 325 mg

(d) 162 mg

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36. The interfacial forces are related to the contact angle by

(a) Nernst Equation

(b) Stoke’s Equation

(c) Young’s Equation

(d) Laplace Equation

37. In the Langmuir Isotherm, following statements are true EXCEPT one

(a) The layer of the gas adsorbed on the solid adsorbent is one molecule thick

(b) Adsorbed layer is uniform all over adsorbent

(c) No desorption takes place when gas strikes solid surface

(d) No interaction between the adjacent adsorbed molecules takes place

38. In absence of instruction by the prescriber, unless otherwise directed, the dose given for the mixture preparation should be stated on the label as

(a) One five ml spoonful to be taken three times a day in water

(b) Two five ml spoonful to be taken three times a day in water

(c) Two five ml spoonful to be taken two times a day in water

(d) One five ml spoonful to be taken two times a day in water

39. Suspensions containing a high percentage (about 50% or greater) of small deflocculated particles would show which of the following flow properties

(a) Plastic flow

(b) Dilatant flow

(c) Newtonian flow

(d) Pseudoplastic flow

40. Drugs covered under this schedule are not permitted for repacking license. Identify the correct schedule

(a) Schedule H

(b) Schedule G

(c) Schedule O

(d) Schedule C and C1

41. Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of cosmetics are mentioned, in the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945 under

(a) Schedule M

(b) Schedule M-1

(c) Schedule M-2

(d) Schedule M-3

42. Match List I with List II

List I (Schedule)	List II (Cover the)
1. Schedule Y	(P) Shelf life of drugs
2. Schedule FF	(Q) Requirements for clinical trails
3. Schedule O	(R) Disinfectant liquids
4. Schedule P	(S) Ophthalmic ointments

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(a) 1-[P], 2-[Q], 3-[R], 4-[S]

(b) 1-[Q], 2-[R], 3-[S], 4-[P]

(c) 1-[S], 2-[R], 3-[Q], 4-[P]

(d) 1-[Q], 2-[S], 3-[R], 4-[P]

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43. Choose the correct and the major product formed in the above-given reaction from the choices listed below
(a) 2-Pentene
(b) 2-Methyl-2-butene
(c) 1-Pentene
(d) 1-Methyl-2-butene
44. The following are the processes occurring during flame atomization in atomic absorption spectrometry
[P] Volatilization [Q] Ionization [R] Nebulization
[S] Desolvation [T] Dissociation
Arrange the processes in sequential order and choose the correct answer from below
(a) R, Q, P, S, T
(b) R, S, T, Q, P
(c) P, R, S, Q, T
(d) R, S, P, T,Q
45. A mixture of p-anisaldehyde and formaldehyde in the presence of concentrated sodium hydroxide results in
(a) p-Methoxy sodium benzoate
(b) Sodium-p-methoxy benzene
(c) P-Methoxy benzyl alcohol
(d) p-Methoxy benzoyl alcohol
46. Which one of the following compound is a precursor for the biosynthesis of cholesterol
(a) Progesterone
(b) Lanosterol
(c) Cholic acid
(d) Coprostanol

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47. Which one among the following drugs has the IUPAC name, α, α, α, α- tetramethyl 5- (1 H-1,2,4-triazole- 1-ylmethyl)-1,3-benzenediacetonitrile
(a) Letrozole
(b) Anastrozole
(c) Exemestane
(d) Aminoglutethimide
48. The reaction between naphthalene and chromium trioxide in the presence of glacial acetic yields
(a) Naphthalene-1,4-dione
(b) 4-Hydroxynaphthalen-1(4H)-one
(c) Naphthalene-1.2-dione
(d) 1-Hydroxynaphthalen-2(1H)-one
49. Platinum electrode surrounded by an outer tube, in which hydrogen passes entering through side inlet and escaping at the bottom through the test solution is called as
(a) Silver electrode
(b) Calomel electrode
(c) Standard hydrogen electrode
(d) Indicator electrode
50. Which of the following gives correct rank order from fastest to slowest of the relative rates in SN reaction of methyl bromide, tert-butyl bromide, isopropyl bromide and ethyl bromide
(a) Methyl bromide > Ethyl Bromide > Isopropyl bromide > tert-Butyl bromide
(b) tert-Butyl bromide > Isopropyl bromide > Ethyl Bromide > Methyl bromide
(c) Ethyl bromide > Methyl Bromide > Isopropyl bromide > tert-Butyl bromide
(d) Methyl bromide > Ethyl Bromide > tert-Butyl bromide > Isopropyl bromide

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51. Select the correct set of anticancer drugs that belong to “Pyrimidine and related compounds”
(a) 5-Fluorouracil, Tegafur, Decitabine, 5-Azacytidine
(b) 5-Fluorouracil, Tegafur, Decitabine, Clofarabine
(c) Tegafur, Decitabine, 5-Azacytidine, Clofarabine
(d) Tegafur, Decitabine, 5-Azacytidine, Pentostatin
52. E2 elimination converts neomenthyl chloride into a mixture of the following compounds
(a) 3-menthene (75%) and 2-menthene (25%)
(b) 4-menthene (75%) and 2-menthene (25%)
(c) 3-menthene (25%) and 5-menthene (75%)
(d) 1-menthene (50%) and 3-menthene (50%)
53. Ethyl-2 (p-chlorophenoxy)-2-methyl propionate is IUPAC name of
(a) Fenofibrate
(b) Colestipol
(c) Clofibrate
(d) Colesevelam
54. Identify the vibrational modes shown by sulfur dioxide molecule in IR spectroscopy
(a) Symmetric stretching and asymmetric stretching
(b) Symmetric stretching and scissoring
(c) Asymmetric stretching and scissoring
(d) Symmetric stretching, asymmetric stretching and scissoring
55. Select the correct product A of the above-given reaction from the four choices given below

56. The perfect orientation for a Diels-Alder reaction between the reactants is
(a) Diene should be S-cis and reaction endo facing
(b) Diene should be S-cis and reaction exo facing
(c) Diene should be S-trans and reaction endo facing
(d) Diene should be S-trans and reaction exo facing
57. How would you prepare 2000 mL of 0.15 M NaOH aqueous solution
(a) Dissolve 12 g of NaOH in distilled water and dilute to 2000 mL
(b) Dissolve 15 g of NaOH in distilled water and dilute to 2000 mL
(c) Dissolve 10 g of NaOH in distilled water and dilute to 2000 mL
(d) Dissolve 7.5 g of NaOH in distilled water and dilute to 2000 mL

Also Read: GPAT 2023 Shift-II Previous Year Question Paper
58. Identify what is not a continuum source of radiation for use in absorption and fluorescence spectrophotometers
(a) Argon are lamp
(b) Hollow-cathode lamp
(c) Deuterium lamp
(d) Xenon are lamp
59. The molecular formula of purine is
(a) C5H4N4
(b) C6H5N3
(c) C7H6N2
(d) C4H3N5
60. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion and the other is labelled as Reason
Assertion (A) The disadvantage of atomic absorption spectroscopy is the need for each element to be analysed
Reason (R) As atomic absorption spectrophotometer uses different halo cathode lamp for each element, it is very specific for an individual element under test
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

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61. In context to voltammetry, which of the following statement is false
(a) Technique can be used to analyse organic compounds containing carbonyl groups
(b) Organic solvents cannot be used as aqueous organic mixture in this technique
(c) Immuno sensors are available in voltammetry
(d) Triangular waveform is used for excitation of solution in cyclic voltammetry
62. Choose the correct order of decreasing dielectric constant
(a) Water > Formamide > Methanol > Acetone
(b) Water > Methanol > Acetone > Formamide
(c) Formamide > Acetone > Methanol > Water
(d) Formamide > Water > Methanol > Acetone
63. How many optical isomers are possible for lactic acid
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
64. Predict the wavelength of absorption band in the UV spectrum of the above shown structure

(a) 252 nm (b) 248 nm (c) 244 nm (d) 240 nm
65. Electrophilic substitution reaction of pyridine, when carried out in the presence of KNO3 and conc. H2SO4 at 300°C, leads to the formation of
(a) 4-Nitropyridine
(b) 3-Nitropyridine
(c) 2-Nitropyridine
(d) N-nitro pyridinium salt

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66. A reagent may attach itself to a conjugated diene to the carbons at the two ends of the conjugated system. Identify the reaction involved from the following
(a) 1,2-addition
(b) 1,4-addition
(c) 1,3-addition
(d) 2,4-addition

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67. Following groups exert anyone of the effects on electrophilic aromatic substitution. Identify whether all three are

-OC2H5, -NHCOCH3, -OCH3
(a) Weakly activating
(b) Deactivating
(c) Moderately activating
(d) Strongly activating
68. The correct rank order of orientation of sulfonation in toluene is
(a) 4-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 2-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 3 methylbenzenesulfonic acid
(b) 2-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 3-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 4-methylbenzenesulfonic acid
(c) 3-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 4-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 2-methylbenzenesulfonic acid
(d) 3-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 2-methylbenzenesulfonic acid > 4-methylbenzenesulfonic acid
69. Lucas test is very rapid with
(a) 1°alcohol
(b) 2°alcohol
(c) 3°alcohol
(d) Phenol
70. As the solution of a strong electrolyte is diluted, the following phenomenon is observed
(a) The specific conductance decreases and equivalent conductance increases
(b) The specific conductance increases and equivalent conductance decreases
(c) Both specific conductance and equivalent conductance increase
(d) Both specific conductance and equivalent conductance decrease
71. The molecule having zero dipole moment is
(a) BF3 (b) HF (c) NH3 (d) CH3C1

 

72. Following is an example of atypical anti-psychotic
(a) Haloperidol
(b) Clozapine
(c) Thioridazine
(d) Fluphenazine
73. Following is not an example of Carbapenem
(a) Thienamycin
(b) Imipenem
(c) Piperacillin
(d) Meropenem

Also Read: GPAT 2023 Shift-II Previous Year Question Paper
74. Which of the following Urinary Tract Anti-Infective agents requires an acidic pH of urine for optimum action
(a) Gentamicin
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Carbenicillin
(d) Streptomycin
75. Which of the following drugs has an apparent volume of distribution approximately 6500 litres
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Ibuprofen
(c) Chloroquine
(d) Diazepam
76. Match the following concept in List I with parameters in List II

List I (Concept)	List II (Parameter)
1. Volume of Distribution	(P) Measure volume of real physiological plasma
2. Evans Blue	(Q) Human serum albumin
3. 3.5-5%	(R) Volume of blood
4. Metallothionein	(S) Ratio of body drug content to plasma concentration
	(T) Protein present in kidney to bind metal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) 1-[P], 2-[Q], 3-[R], 4-[S]
(b) 1-[T], 2-[S], 3-[R], 4-[Q]
(c) 1-[S], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[T]
(d) 1-[R], 2-[Q], 3-[S], 4-[T]

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77. Trastuzumab is a/an
(a) EGFR/HER2 inhibitor
(b) Angiogenesis inhibitor
(c) EGF receptor (HER1) inhibitor
(d) BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor
78. When is a New Drug Application (NDA) made
(a) Once the animal studies are done and drug is declared safe in animals
(b) Once the animal studies are done and drug is declared safe and effective in animal studies
(c) After the phase III clinical trials
(d) After the phase IV clinical trials
79. Identify the drug that is not among the drugs recommended as first time drug in the treatment of Partial seizers with or without generalization
(a) Carbamazepine
(b) Valproate
(c) Diazepam
(d) Lamotrigine
80. Which of the following hyperlipidemic drugs act via a GPCR
(a) Nicotinic acid
(b) Fenofibrate
(c) Atorvastatin
(d) Ezetimibe

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81. All the following are TNF-α Inhibitors EXCEPT
(a) Etanercept
(b) Infliximab
(c) Adalimumab
(d) Basiliximab
82. Match the following cells of immune system List I with their functions List II

List I (Immune System)	List II (Functions)
1. Mast cells	(P) Master of Immune Systems
2. Lymphocytes	(Q) Allergic Reactions
3. T-cells	(R) Cell mediated immune reactions
4. Monocytes-macrophages	(S) Antigen recognition, Phagocytosis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) 1-[P], 2-[Q], 3-[R], 4-[S]

(b) 1-[Q], 2-[P], 3-[R], 4-[S]
(c) 1-[R], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[S]

(d) 1-[P], 2-[R], 3-[Q], 4-[S]
83. Which of the following drug can produce mydriasis without Cycloplegia
(a) Atropine
(b) Tropicamide
(c) Homatropine
(d) Ephedrine

Also Read: GPAT 2023 Shift-II Previous Year Question Paper
84. What do you mean by Orphan drug
(a) A drug meant to be distributed among the orphans who can not afford the cost of the drug
(b) A drug for a disease which is not having any other treatment options at all
(c) A drug which is useful for rare disease
(d) A drug that is available in abundance
85. Normal value of HbA1c falls in the range of
(a) 0.1% to 0.8%
(b) 6.5% to 7.5%
(c) 21.5% to 24.5%
(d) 51.5% to 53.5%

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86. A 70 kg woman was administered 1000 mg of the drug as i.v bolus. After its uniform distribution in the body, the plasma concentration of the drug was found to be 50 mg/
L. What is its volume of distribution
(a) 70L (b) 500L (c) 20L (d) 0.1L

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87. A hypertensive patient receiving a drug ‘Y’ for managing BP was prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant. As a result, there was an abolition of the antihypertensive action of ‘Y’. Which of the following drug could be ‘Y’
(a) Atenolol
(b) Captopril
(c) Clonidine
(d) Diltiazem
88. Put the events of acute inflammation in proper sequence
(a) Accumulation of fluid and plasma at the affected site → intravascular activation of plate lets → polymorphonuclear neutrophils → followed by healing
(b) Polymorphonuclear neutrophils → accumulation of fluid and plasma at the affected site
→ intravascular activation of platelets → followed by healing
(c) Accumulation of fluid and plasma at the affected site → polymorphonuclear neutrophils
→ intravascular activation of platelets → followed by healing
(d) Intravascular activation of platelets → polymorphonuclear neutrophils → accumulation of fluid and plasma at the affected site → followed by healing
89. Which of the following is NOT an example of an mTOR inhibitor
(a) Everolimus
(b) Tacrolimus
(c) Temsirolimus
(d) Sirolimus
90. Alzheimer’s disease is mainly because of the neurodegeneration of the following part of the brain
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Midbrain
(c) Hippocampus
(d) Cerebellum

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91. Which of the following has been found to act as a male contraceptive without affecting libido and potency
(a) Cyproterone
(b) Gossypol
(c) Centchroman
(d) Goserelin
92. Choose the most appropriate statement for the Peptic ulcer disease caused by NSAIDs
(a) H2 antagonists offer rapid healing of ulcer provided the NSAID is discontinued
(b) H2 antagonists offer rapid healing
(c) Proton Pump Inhibitor is to be given only if the NSAID is discontinued
(d) NSAIDs are strictly contraindicated with Proton Pump Inhibitors
93. Lateral geniculate nucleus is associated with
(a) Vision
(b) Hearing
(c) Olfaction
(d) Gustation
94. Which of the following drug used in the chemotherapy of some types of leukemia, satis fies the statements
Statement I: It is effective orally
Statement II: It has near 100% oral bioavailability
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) Asparaginase
(b) Doxorubicin
(c) Mitomycin
(d) Hydroxyurea
95. Statement I: In vasospastic angina, the imbalance occurs when the myocardial oxygen requirement increases, as during exercise, and coronary blood flow does not increase proportionately.
Statement II: In Prinzmetal’s angina, oxygen delivery decreases as a result of reversible coronary vasospasm
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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96. In ECG, the P wave corresponds to the following event
(a) Atrial depolarisation
(b) Ventricular depolarisation
(c) Atrial repolarisation
(d) Ventricular repolarization
97. Which of the following cranial nerve helps in accommodating the eye for near vision
(a) Oculomotor
(b) Optic
(c) Trochlear
(d) Facial
98. Which of the following is true for bone tissue cell differentiation and maturation
(a) Osteogenic → Osteoblasts → Osteocytes
(b) Osteogenic → Osteoblasts → Osteoclasts
(c) Osteocytes → Osteogenic → Osteoblasts
(d) Osteoclasts → Osteoblasts → Osteocytes
99. A drug ‘X’ is more selective for the α1 subunit of BZD receptors. It lacks effect on slow- wave sleep. minimum residual daytime sedation, no rebound insomnia on discontinuation, low abuse potential. Which of the following can be ‘X’
(a) Flurazepam
(b) Flumazenil
(c) Melatonin
(d) Zolpidem
100. Which of the following is a fourth-generation cephalosporin
(a) Ceftriaxone
(b) Cefaclor
(c) Cefuroxime
(d) Cefepime

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101. Which of the following metabolite is used to inactivate the vasicotoxic metabolites leading to hemorrhagic cystitis by alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer
(a) Acroline
(b) Aldophosphamide
(c) Cyclophosphamide
(d) Mesna
102. All the following are true with Metoclopramide EXCEPT
(a) 5-HT1 receptor antagonist
(b) D receptor antagonist
(c) 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
(d) 5-HT4 receptor agonist
103. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Levodopa is metabolized peripherally but capable of crossing Blood Brain Barrier, thus a best drug in treating Parkinsonism
Statement II: Carbidopa crosses Blood Brain Barrier, thus a best combination for pro tecting levodopa in CNS
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
104. Which of the following is a tetracycline antidepressant that has additional Dopamine D2 receptor blocking and neuroleptic properties as well as a greater tendency to cause seizure in overdose [DROPPED QUESTION]
(a) Dothiepin
(b) Doxepin
(c) Trazodone
(d) Amoxapine

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105. Which one is the right sequence of the intermediates in the biosynthesis of opium alkaloids
I. Tyrosine       II. Reticuline     III. Codeine
IV. Morphine    V. Thebaine

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) I, II, III, IV, V
(b) I, II, V, III, IV
(c) I, II, V, IV, III
(d) I, II, IV, V, III
106. Arrange the following intermediates in the synthesis of isoprenoids in the right sequence
I. Squalene        II. Farnesyl PP      III. Geranyl PP
IV. Acetyl CoA    V. Mevalonate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) IV, II, III, I, V
(b) IV, V, III, II, I
(c) II, III, IV, I, V
(d) V, II, III, I, IV
107. If the resins contain benzoic acids or cinnamic acids they are called
(a) Colophony
(b) Balsams
(c) Glycoresins
(d) Resene
108. Lycopodium spores are used in quantitative microscopy for the following
I. Determine % purity of drugs
II. Estimation of percentage of foreign organic matter
III. Determination of palisade ratio
IV. Measurement of area of single layered tissue
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) I, II and III only
(b) I, II and IV only
(c) I only
(d) II and IV only
109. The ring structure present in strychnine alkaloid is
(a) Indole
(b) Purine
(c) Phenanthrene
(d) Imidazole
110. Isabgol belongs to family
(a) Apocynaceae
(b) Plantaginaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Golaceae

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111. Lignin is a complex polymer which can be stained pink in the tissue using the following chemicals
(a) Chloral Hydrate and Phloroglucinol
(b) Chlor-Zinc-Iodine
(c) Phloroglucinol and hydrochloric acid
(d) Chloral Hydrate, Zinc and Ammonia
112. Match the following Ayurvedic formulations under Column I with the process/ properties under Column II and choose the correct options

List I (Ayurvedic Formulations)	List II (Process or Property)
1. Bhasma	(P) Semisolid
2. Arista	(Q) Calcination
3. Churna	(R) Alcohol generation
4. Lehya	(S) Dry Powder
	(T) Decoction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) 1-[P], 2-[R], 3-[S], 4-[T]
(b) 1-[R], 2-[Q], 3-[P], 4-[S]
(c) 1-[R], 2-[T], 3-[P], 4-[Q]
(d) 1-[Q], 2-[R], 3-[S], 4-[P]
113. Match the types of glycosides under Column I with their respective example under Column II and choose the correct option

Column I (Glycosides)	Column II (Examples)
1. Anthracene	(P) Digitalis
2. Cardiac	(Q) Liquorice
3. Saponin	(R) Senna
4. Cyanogenetic	(S) Ashwagandha
	(T) Bitter Almond

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) 1-[R], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[T]
(b) 1-[T], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[R]
(c) 1-[S], 2-[Q], 3-[P], 4-[R]
(d) 1-[Q], 2-[R], 3-[S], 4-[P]
114. Quinine and Quinidine differs in
(a) Chemical nature
(b) Molecular formula
(c) Rotating the plane of polarized light
(d) Precursor of biosynthesis

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115. Establishing a complete structure of _____ is more complex problem than others
(a) Polysaccharide
(b) Protein
(c) Nucleic acid
(d) Peptide

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116. Which one is not the characteristics of the Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
(a) It produces CO2
(b) It requires ATP for phosphorylation
(c) It is controlled by inhibition of glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase by NADPH
(d) It produces ribose-5-phosphate
117. Match List I with List II

Column I (Name of Vitamin)	Column II (Functions of Vitamins)
1. Riboflavin	(P) The electron acceptor for isocitrate dehydrogenase
2. Niacin	(Q) Decarboxylation of α-ketoglutarate
3. Thiamine	(R) Part of Co-enzyme A
4. Pantothenic acid	(S) Cofactor for succinate dehydrogenase
	(T) Enzyme activity regulator such as protein kinase C

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) 1-[S], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[R]
(b) 1-[R], 2-[Q], 3-[S], 4-[T]
(c) 1-[P], 2-[R], 3-[S], 4-[Q]
(d) 1-[Q], 2-[T], 3-[P], 4-[S]
118. DNA and RNA contain the following two major purine bases
(a) Guanine and Cytosine
(b) Adenine and Guanine
(c) Thymine and Uracil
(d) Adenine and Uracil

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119. Match the process of reproduction and genetic exchange under column I with the explanation under column II Match List I with List II

List I (PROCESS OF REPRODUCTION AND GENETIC EXCHANGE)	List II (EXPLANATION)
1. Binary fission	(P) Transfer of genetic material from the donor to recipient bacterium through cell contact
2. Transformation	(Q) Common vegetative reproduction
3. Transduction	(R) Transfer of genetic material in bacteria through virus
4. Conjugation	(S) Horizontal gene transfer by taking up of foreign genetic material (naked DNA)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) 1-[P], 2-[R], 3-[S], 4-[Q]
(b) 1-[R], 2-[P], 3-[S], 4-[Q]
(c) 1-[Q], 2-[S], 3-[P], 4-[R]
(d) 1-[Q], 2-[S], 3-[R], 4-[P]
120. Match List I with List II

Column I (FERMENTATION PRODUCTS)	Column II (STRAIN USE)
1. Dextran	(P) Clostridium tetani
2. Bacterial amylase	(Q) Brevibacterium sp.
3. Glutamic acid	(R) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
4. Vitamin B12	(S) Bacillus subtilis
	(T) Streptomyces olivaceus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) 1-[T], 2-[P], 3-[S], 4-[R]
(b) 1-[P], 2-[S], 3-[Q], 4-[R]
(c) 1-[Q], 2-[R], 3-[T], 4-[S]
(d) 1-[R], 2-[S], 3-[Q], 4-[T]

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121. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : Exotoxins diffuse freely through the bacterial cell wall into the medium in which the organisms are growing
Reason R : They are water soluble and can pass into the surrounding medium
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
122. Basic dyes are used in microbiological staining. Which of the following statement is wrong about mechanism of staining
(a) The positive ions on the surface of bacteria form a colored complex with the dye
(b) Ionic exchange between the negative charge on the bacteria and positive charge of dye takes place
(c) Ionic exchange between the positive charge on the bacteria and negative charge of dye takes place
(d) The neutral charge on the surface of bacteria forms a colored complex with the basic dye
123. Which of the following represents a complete list of products that are offered by a com pany for Sale
(a) Product Variety
(b) Product Mix
(c) Product Item
(d) Product Line
124. Shift from ‘Try my product’ to ‘Prefer my brand’ marketing strategy is done at what stage of product life cycle
(a) Introduction
(b) Growth
(c) Maturity
(d) Decline
125. Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) vaccine is an example of
(a) Subunit vaccine
(b) Toxoid vaccine
(c) Recombinant protein vaccine
(d) Conjugate vaccine

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1-b	2-a	3-d	4-b	5-c	6-d	7-c	8-a	9-a	10-a
11-a	12-d	13-c	14-a	15-d	16-c	17-c	18-b	19-c	20-d
21-a	22-b	23-b	24-d	25-a	26-d	27-a	28-a	29-a	30-b
31-d	32-b	33-d	34-c	35-b	36-c	37-c	38-b	39-b	40-d
41-c	42-d	43-b	44-d	45-c	46-b	47-b	48-a	49-c	50-a
51-a	52-a	53-c	54-a	55-d	56-a	57-a	58-b	59-a	60-c
61-b	62-d	63-a	64-d	65-b	66-b	67-c	68-a	69-c	70-a
71-a	72-b	73-c	74-c	75-c	76-c	77-a	78-c	79-c	80-a
81-d	82-b	83-d	84-c	85-b	86-c	87-c	88-a	89-b	90-c
91-b	92-b	93-a	94-d	95-d	96-a	97-a	98-a	99-d	100-d
101-d	102-a	103-c	104-*	105-b	106-b	107-b	108-c	109-a	110-b
111-c	112-d	113-a	114-c	115-a	116-b	117-a	118-b	119-d	120-d
121-a	122-d	123-b	124-b	125-d